Let $H$ be hilbert and $T$ a BLO, such that $T:H\rightarrow H$. Prove that $\langle T(x),x \rangle = 0$ implies $T = 0$.
Any hints to tackle this problem?
i tried writing x as $x = u + v$ where $u \in Y$ and $v \in Y^T$ for some closed linear subspace of $H$, but i did not see somethins smart. Is it maybe smart to try using the contra positive?