Edit:
This question is not a duplicate of the associated question and has no answers to it that were posted for that associated question. This question asks specifically for a calculation, the associated question doesn't ask for that, and no answers with calculations were given there.
According to Wikipedia about the Kármán line:
In the final chapter of his autobiography Kármán adresses the issue of the edge of outer space:
...or 24 miles up. At this altitude and speed, aerodynamic lift still carries 98 per cent of the weight of the plane, and only two per cent is carried by centrifugal force, or Kepler Force, as space scientists call it. But at 300,000 feet (91,440 m) or 57 miles up, this relationship is reversed because there is no longer any air to contribute lift: only centrifugal force prevails. This is certainly a physical boundary where aerodynamics stops and astronautics begins, and so i thought why should it not also be a jurisdictional boundary ? Haley has kindly called it the Kármán Jurisdictional Line. Below this line space belongs to each country. Above this level there would be free space.
If von Kármán is right with his description of the Kármán line, then isn't there a region near that line where the lifting force equals the centrifugal force ?
Question: Is it possible to calculate the altitude where the lifting force would equal the centrifugal force near the Kármán line ?
Afterword: From the accepted answer below can be concluded:
.........60 km........... for the North American X-15 hypersonic aircraft
.........70 km........... for the Fokker F27 turboprop airliner
.........80 km........... for the Schleicher ASW 22 sailplane
.......100 km............for the Kármán bird
-1"If von Kármán is right with his description of the Kármán line..." That sentence misrepresents the reality of the situation. Karman did not describe the Karman line, he defined it. Definitions can be whatever you want them to be. They aren't "right' or "wrong", but only "useful" or "not-useful/obscure". This one ended up in the useful category for a half-century. Because the OP has been at this "was Karman wrong" question writing for so long now, I think this question should be closed as "math-trolling not good faith question-asking". – uhoh Dec 20 '18 at 07:14