Assume there are $r$ red and $b$ blue balls. We define the random variables as
$X_1$ : number of red balls preceding the first blue ball.
$X_i$ : number of red balls drawn following the appearance of the $(i-1)$th blue but before the appearance of the $i$th blue ball,$\quad i=2,3,...$
$X_{b+1}:$ number of red balls drawn following the appearance of the $b$th blue.
So, $X_1+X_2+...+X_{b+1}=r$; note that the $(X_{i})_{i=1,2,...,b+1}$'s are identically distributed.
Thus from the linearity of expectation, $(b+1)\mathbb{E}(X_1)=r\Rightarrow \mathbb{E}(X_1)=\dfrac{r}{b+1}$
Now, let $Y:$ number of draws needed to get the first blue ball.
Then, $Y=X_1+1\Rightarrow \mathbb{E}(Y)=\mathbb{E}(X_1)+1$, which is the required answer.
We can also calculate $\mathbb{E}(X_1)$ directly from the pmf
$$\mathbb{P}(X_1=k)=\frac{b}{r+b}.\frac{(r)_k}{(r+b-1)_k}\quad,k=0,1,...,r$$