Let $f: \Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^N \to \mathbb{R}^M$ be $C^1$, and $K \subseteq \Omega$. Prove that $f \mid_K$ is Lipschitz.
Letting $x,y \in K$, I know that $f$ is locally Lipschitz, I thought about taking a finite subcover of $K$ by the open cover of the balls which makes $f$ locally Lipschitz, and then take a sequence of $x_k, k=0,\dots, n$ in such that $x_0 =x$ and $x_n=y$, $x_k =y$ and $(x_i)$ are aligned, then try to use $|f(x)- f(y)| \le \sum_{i=1}^{n}|f(x_{i=1})- f(x_i)|$. But the very first problem is to take this sequence as $K$ is not necessary convex.
Again, if $K$ was convex I would make use of the Mean Value Inequality and that $K$ is compact to limit the value of $||Df_{p}||$, but as it is not the case I don't know how to proceed.
So how can I avoid that? Does it hold for a general $K$ compact?
Finally, I am aware of this question, but his question, at the end, was only concerning the continuity, which I already know how to deal with there was no useful answer, nor comment for me, I apologise if I acted wrong by opening a new one.