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I am currently working as a teacher in Spain and have a 1 year residency permit that expires June 30th. I was planning a trip to Croatia, which is not in Schengen, and flying back into Madrid on June 30th and flying back to the US on July 2nd.

Will I have problems entering Spain on the day my visa expires, or will I be able to re-enter on a tourist visa (as in the 90 days you're allowed to be in Schengen without a long-stay visa)?

In addition, I will be flying to Greece in July - does anyone know if I will have problems entering Greece since I have technically been in Schengen for around a year without having left for 3 months?

Anyone have any experience with this? All the rules seem very confusing!

Relaxed
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Amcl0221
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    What's your citizenship? – Karlson May 01 '15 at 12:22
  • As @phoog explained, the year you spent in Spain will not count toward the 90-day maximum stay (see http://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/10504/does-tourist-visa-90-days-apply-after-a-working-holiday-visa-ends-in-schengen/24777#24777 for a reference). But the two days after the expiration of your long-stay visa will (i.e. you only have 88 days left when entering Greece in July, not 90), see http://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/13183/about-schengen-90-180-rule/21461#21461 for more details on this rule and a link to a calculator. – Relaxed May 01 '15 at 17:03

1 Answers1

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I assume you are a US citizen, based on your statement that you will fly "back to the US."

Because you are a citizen of a visa-exempt country, you should be able to enter on the date of your visa's expiration. Time spent in Spain on a Spanish long-term visa or residence permit does not count toward the 90-day total. Therefore, you should also not be refused entry to Greece for overstaying.

phoog
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