7

I have a long term visa of Czech Republic valid from 24 November. Is it alright to board a flight from India to Czech Republic, at say 1 am of 24 November in the Indian time (but still late night of 23 November in my visa country), but which reaches my connection in France (CDG) on 24th November when my visa is valid and thereafter it reaches Prague when my visa is again valid.

Kritika
  • 73
  • 5
  • 2
    I guess this question is effectively asking whether dates in travel documents should refer to the time-zone in which they were written, or the time-zone in which they're used? – gidds Oct 01 '21 at 08:47
  • Be aware that unexpected things might happen. For example, the person checking your documents at departure might not be sure of which time zone is to be applied, and might deny you boarding just to be safe (from the airline POV). Even if you were right and he was wrong, it would be you the one who would be denied boarding. – SJuan76 Oct 01 '21 at 10:13
  • OT: You may want to know that if your name is really Kritika, where you're going this word means 'criticism'. Use this fact to have fun with the locals ;-) – JohnEye Oct 01 '21 at 14:33
  • @gidds That would clarify the legal situation. I have assumed that dates in the visa refer to the timezone of the issuing country. But some countries like US, Russia have multiple timezones. I could be wrong though, in which case visa dates refer to the timezone of the Embassy/ Consulate issuing the visa? – Kritika Oct 01 '21 at 14:53

1 Answers1

13

Your visa has to be valid when you reach a country that requires it. Starting your trip before the start date of the visa is not unusual. As long as you do not plan to arrive before the start date you will be fine, and will be able to board your flight.

Krist van Besien
  • 11,206
  • 34
  • 49
  • 6
    I'd actually suggest altering again, something like "your visa must be valid when you reach a country where the visa is a requirement for entry". That's not always the country that issued it - as OP's example shows. – Chris H Oct 01 '21 at 05:27
  • @ChrisH you have a point, but for visa purposes one can usually treat the Schengen area as being one country. – Krist van Besien Oct 01 '21 at 07:20
  • 3
    Also note that arriving at an airport in a country is not the same as entering that country. Entering means you go through border/immigration/customs checks, have your documents and baggage checked. So long as you haven't gone through that process at the airport, you haven't legally entered the country as far as immigration concerns. – Xano Oct 01 '21 at 08:00
  • @Xano: you should be careful on that (see also a recent question of a person denied boarding). Passing immigration is the official entering, but one enter the country when they land. So one could be arrested, but also one may require a transit visa (also if one doesn't pass any immigration check). – Giacomo Catenazzi Oct 01 '21 at 13:07
  • @Xano You are for most purposes wrong. Take for example a flight from this question. If I fly from France to Prague, I do not go through immigration in Prague. In which country am I according to your logic after leaving the airport? According to your statement, I have not entered Czechia since I did not go through immigration. Am I in no man's land? Or am I perhaps still in France, since I didn't go through immigration there either before boarding the plance? – Tor-Einar Jarnbjo Oct 01 '21 at 13:17
  • @xano Careful now, Landing in the US, there is no so-called transit or international zone in the airports. After disembarking, the only thing you can do, other than sitting in the middle of a hall with nothing else in it, is go through CBP, i.e. entering the US. – CGCampbell Oct 01 '21 at 15:39
  • It seems then that if you arrive at 11:50pm and your visa starts the next day, you'd have to wait 10 minutes in that empty hall. I assume that part is legally outside to the USA, so if the USA doesn't want you, they don't have to remove you but can just deny you entry. – gnasher729 Oct 02 '21 at 19:49