10

One of theories behind the origin of the esoteric oh-my-god particle was that it's exhaust of an alien spaceship. There are other explanations, some quite plausible, but let us for the purpose of this question assume that that one is true and try to examine performance of such drive.

Known, or plausibly suspected:

  • the particle energy was 48J.
  • it was a proton. Rest mass: $1.67 \cdot 10^{-27}$kg
  • it was moving extremely close to speed of light. Let's round the speed to $3\cdot10^8$ m/s
  • the source is outside our galaxy, but not very far from its edges. Source.
  • mass equivalent of 48J is $5.28 \cdot 10^{-16}$ kg (calculated using this )

Now, for my assumptions about the craft:

  • it doesn't carry its own energy source for this propulsion
    • mass of any energy source other than antimatter would make propelling particles this close to the speed of light pointless; it's better to pack more propellant and push it to, say, 90% of speed of light instead of pumping so many joules into mass equivalence of energy without gaining extra Isp.
    • if the energy source was antimatter, the trivial, optimal propellant would be photons. There's absolutely no point converting them into energy to propel a proton while they can provide about the same (minimally better) performance directly.
  • It abuses energy-mass equivalence to create a large exhaust mass from minimal amount of propellant. Specific impulse is near the absolute maximum $c/g_0$, but thanks to using external energy, it gets far more exhaust gas mass than its fuel flow would provide, circumventing tyranny of the rocket equation — for every $1.67 \cdot 10^{-27}$kg of fuel spent, $5.28 \cdot 10^{-16}$ kg of fuel is expelled! (Of course also mass equivalent of the energy is lost, but it's soon recuperated by harvesting external energy!)

Now, I don't know what kind of energy source would it be. Uhoh ballparked the cosmic background non-uniformities at 1 microwatt per $m^2$ - but it might be a beamed energy from the craft's origin, it might be shine of the (still near) galaxy, or other unknown source.

Regardless — the point where I'm asking your help is coming up with the new, adjusted rocket equation for this drive. Assuming the rocket still moves at speed pretty far from speed of light (no need to apply relativistic equations to it), what would be the equation for $\Delta v$ where mass of exhaust considerably differs from mass of propellant — "created"/provided externally?

Bonus question: What fuel mass fraction would such a rocket need to achieve 0.1c?

This equation might be related to equations for jet engines. In a jet engine, mass of exhaust is much higher than mass of fuel spent to produce it; the extra mass coming from intake air, expelled air continuously recuperated through intakes.

SF.
  • 54,970
  • 12
  • 174
  • 343

1 Answers1

6

Rocket equation starts with conservation of momentum:

$$\frac{dp}{dt} = m\frac{\partial v}{\partial t} + v\frac{\partial m}{\partial t}$$

But at such a high energy, the rest mass of the proton can be ignored - it's about 1E-11 (as $m_0c^2$) as big as the energy. So drop the second term.

$$\frac{dp}{dt} \approx m\frac{\partial v}{\partial t}$$

$$\frac{dv}{dt} \approx \frac{1}{m}\frac{dp}{dt}$$

$$\Delta v \approx \frac{\Delta p}{m}$$

For a very relativistic particle:

$$p = \frac{E}{c}$$

For $n_{omgp}$ oh-my-god protons:

$$\Delta p = n_{omgp}\frac{E_{omgp}}{c}$$

To get a rocket of mass $m_R$ to a velocity $0.1c$ velocity (non-relativistic approximation for rocket):

$$0.1 c = \frac{n_{omgp} E_{omgp}}{m_Rc}$$

Rearranging

$$n_{omgp} = \frac{0.1 m_Rc^2}{E_{omgp}}$$

$$n_{omgp} = \frac{0.1 \times 1.0 kg \ \times \text{9E+16} \ \text{m}^2/\text{s}^2}{48 Joules} = \text{1.9E+14 protons}$$

or about 30 micro Coulombs, or about 3E-13 kgs of oh-my-god protons per kilogram of rocket.

uhoh
  • 148,791
  • 53
  • 476
  • 1,473
  • 1
    Thanks! And btw, the easiest way to store protons without building excessive charge is hydrogen. Only electron mass of overhead. – SF. Mar 01 '17 at 06:59
  • 1
    Ya, I'm thinking the ones to be accelerated soon would be kept in a storage ring where they can be cooled, collimated, and ready for final acceleration. Of course they could be stored as negative H${}^-$ ions which makes extraction easier. But you might not want to store any at all, and just use an interstellar proton whenever you run into one. – uhoh Mar 01 '17 at 07:41
  • Nice! Gets me thinking . . . What would be the properties of a toroidal magnetic confinement system for these protons? Because if we could confine and circulate them and build their KE for years chained to an external power source, then decouple and pull away using the stored kinetic energy . . . – Kengineer Mar 01 '17 at 23:35
  • @Kengineer The LHC max energy (momentum) is about 6E+06 MeV (MeV/c) and the omg protons are 5E+07 larger, so for a conventional ring you'd have to increase some combination of field strength and radius by fifty million times to hold protons with that $B\rho$ which is a World Building (artificial) or Astronomy (natural) SE situation. – uhoh Mar 02 '17 at 00:00
  • 1
    @uhoh Yeah, if you can boost them to this kind of speed there's little reason to carry reaction mass. Congratulations, a working version of the Bussard ramjet! :) – Loren Pechtel Mar 02 '17 at 01:31
  • 3
    @LorenPechtel I have a theory (which I probably read somewhere and then forgot) that new technology is never really invented as much as it is recalled from SF stories once read in old paperbacks. – uhoh Mar 02 '17 at 01:35
  • 1
    @uhoh: Oh, shucks, you're giving me too much credit! ;-) – SF. Mar 02 '17 at 07:21
  • @Kengineer: A single cyclotron converts very little energy from directional thrust from , almost all of it coming as torque. I have yet to verify if two cyclotrons propelling the particles in counter-rotating direction of their loops will suffice. – SF. Mar 02 '17 at 07:29
  • @SF. One ring is enough if you have an equal number of antiprotons. At 3E+14 MeV/c you could even use electrons in lieu of antiprotons with some minor adjustments. But as long as the thrust points from the ship's center of mass, the torque would be zero, no? – uhoh Mar 02 '17 at 07:56
  • @uhoh: nope. Acceleration of the craft applies the moment the accelerating force acts upon the propellant. Be it elastic collision with nozzle sides, passing between electrodes of ion drive, or being accelerated by electric field in a cyclotron and/or turned by the magnetic field. The magnetic field will cause just wobble/oscillation in reaction to the particle making circles (think orbiting baricenter of ship-particle system); the electric field will act along the particle's path - all around - including forward -> torque. – SF. Mar 02 '17 at 08:47
  • The torque/spin would sink the energy, otherwise (with counterspin, 2nd cyclotron) passed to the wobble. Arrest the spin, releasing the particle backwards will be on a wobble forward, propulsion. – SF. Mar 02 '17 at 08:52
  • 1
    @SF. If the particles leave the ship (on average) along an axis that includes the center of mass of the ship, there is no torque and no spin on/of the ship. We have to stop now and not discuss further until we are looking at a picture of what we're talking about. Can we start a Shipbuilding Stackexchange? – uhoh Mar 02 '17 at 09:16