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In early 2019 Bill Gates tweeted an infographic during the 45 meeting of the World Economic Forum at Davos that showed that the proportion of people living in poverty had decreased from 94% in 1820 to only 10% today.

A critic of this particular graphic, Jason Hickel, an athropologist at the LSE pointed out that the data on which was based on was pretty much mythical as by modern standards, not much data was collected on poverty until 1981. And anything before that

is sketchy, and to go back as far as 1820 is pretty much meaningless

He also points out that the data-set drawn on for the graphic was never meant to describe global poverty but rather rather GDP inequality and that only for a limited number of countries. He further says what the graph reveals is that the vast majority of people went from a situation of not requiring money to where one where a great many people struggle to survive on very little money indeed. The graph casts this as a reduction in poverty but it is actually a description of dispossesion on an epic scale during the colonisation of the global south.

More substantially he points out that the graph is based on a poverty line drawn up by the World Bank of $1.90 per day! Hickel points out that scholars have argued that a more reasonable level is $8.00/day with Harvard economist Lant Pritchett arguing for around $10-15.

Given all this - why exactly is the World Bank committed to a poverty line of $1.90/day. What is their methodology to establish such a line and how do they answer the criticisms of scholars who argue for eight times as much?

Mozibur Ullah
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  • At the very least in the US the line of poverty doesn't actually measure if someone is actually in deep poverty. All it does is tell you how much the economy is improving or worsening over time. It is pretty much meaningless when taken as a singular data point. I strongly suspect the $1.9 threshold serves the same purpose. – JonathanReez Jun 08 '19 at 16:34
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    I don't understand the argument that Hickel is making about some transition from not requiring money to survive, to requiring money. I guess this is true in a literal sense, but money is just a representation of purchasing power. A feudal laborer didn't require money, but that didn't mean they didn't require wealth (in the physical sense) or labor. Nor was the average medieval European peasant, say, healthier or more free because they didn't use money, unlike their modern counterparts. – Obie 2.0 Jun 08 '19 at 16:47
  • For the methodology, and in particular the extrapolation back to 1820, see Bourguignon and Morrison (2002). It's worth noting that, even setting the poverty line at $10 per day, the percentage of the world population living below that level has decreased. – Obie 2.0 Jun 08 '19 at 17:07
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    @Obie2.0 one example would be a tribe of hunter-gatherers in a forest who have no need for money. Development leads to the forest being cut down, and suddenly, their source of food and materials is gone. They must now participate in an economy they didn't need before. They go from not needing money at all, to needing it and not having it. – barbecue Jun 09 '19 at 16:23
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    @barbecue - Such a group doesn't need money, but they still needed resources. Whether they are poor or (relatively) well off depends on the abundance of those resources and their skill at utilizing them (labor). The issue in such a situation is not money vs. no money, but that their source of income, in essence, has been destroyed. – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 16:27
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    @Obie2.0 You're using a specific definition of money which causes it to exist without the people knowing it exists, which rather begs the question. If they don't know what money is, and they don't need it, or use it, and they're able to survive comfortably, the fact that you consider them to have money is irrelevant to them. – barbecue Jun 09 '19 at 16:34
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    The World Bank is a tool of the hyper-rich, such as Bill Gates. The WB has "proved" that poverty isn't really a problem (heck, it only affect 10% of the world population, right?), so they can focus on more important issues - like making the hyper-rich hyper-richer. WIN-WIN!!! (...not...) – Bob Jarvis - Слава Україні Jun 09 '19 at 16:36
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    In the context of colonialism, making about monetary versus non-monetary systems is a bit weird, especially since many colonized countries already had their own medium of exchange, such as Aztec hoe coins and cacao beans, or barter media such as cattle. I think colonialism led to poverty not because of anything to do with some period of people not needing money before, but because of the systematic expropriation of resources and labor by European powers. – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 16:39
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    @barbecue - I'm not suggesting that a group of hunter-gatherers has money (although I would say that about systems where e.g. cattle or valuable crops are used for barter). I'm pointing out that "not needing money" carries an implication of abundance and leisure which isn't necessarily applicable. – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 16:41
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    @BobJarvis - As noted in the answers, this is the line for extreme poverty. The WB isn't saying, for instance, that someone in New York making $10 an hour isn't really poor simply because their income is well over their proposed poverty line (or for that matter well over the $10 a day that some researchers propose). – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 16:50
  • @Obie2.0 looks like we interpreted the phrase "not needing money" very differently. I took it to mean "able to survive even if the amount of money you have is zero" while you took it to mean "Don't need more money than you already have to survive" – barbecue Jun 09 '19 at 17:25
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    @barbecue - I mean, kind of. What I was trying to say is that poverty can exist in a non-monetary society too. In fact, subsistence farming with minimal participation in the larger economy was the norm in most parts of the world. – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 17:42
  • It's meaningless. You cannot conduct physical arbitrage for less than the cost of fuel so no source forces the global market to stabilize well enough to measure it. – Joshua Jun 09 '19 at 19:42
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    @Joshua - What do you mean? – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 21:02
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    @BobJarvis I call a massive "citation needed" on the claims made in that statement – DreamConspiracy Jun 10 '19 at 09:11
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    You cannot draw a line like that. A thousand euros per month to live in Berlin is not the same can living in Delhi for the same period and same value. Any poverty discussion tries to draw this line is missing the point badly – jean Jun 10 '19 at 14:43
  • @jean - One key point, obscured even in the definition of the WB itself, is that this is an extreme poverty line. It doesn't imply that poverty is almost nonexistent in Berlin. The idea is that being in the bottom 5% by income in Delhi is equivalent to fewer resources than being in the bottom 5% in Berlin. I don't think this can be entirely true, but there surely is something to it. – Obie 2.0 Jun 10 '19 at 18:33
  • @jean Perfect! I just checked and if wikipedia and my geography are not wrong NO country in South America has a minimum wage above US$15/day. Most below US$10. Really hard to just assume that a well rounded number like US$10 or US$15 defines extreme poverty everywhere in the world. – gmauch Jun 10 '19 at 19:03
  • @gmauch Agreed. I could see maybe saying $1.90/day (PPP-adjusted) is extreme poverty anywhere in the world, but $10 and especially $15/day seems way too high for many parts of the world. – reirab Jun 10 '19 at 19:20

3 Answers3

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This $1.90/day is an updated (for inflation basically, more precisely for ICP) of the 1990 World Bank standard of $1/day (actually $31/month).

So it's worth recalling the principles/derivation for the original figure of Ravaillon et al. (1991):

Different societies have different perceptions of what constitutes "poverty," reflecting (in part) different overall levels of living. Our aim here is only to quantify the extent of absolute poverty in the developing world, interpreted as the inability to attain consumption levels which would be deemed adequate in only the poorest countries. This will leave out many persons who are clearly deprived relative to others around them. [...]

In principle, one can think of the real poverty line as comprising an "absolute" component which is constant across all countries, and a "relative" component, which is specific to each country. In seeking to measure the extent of absolute poverty one might simply ask: What is the lowest real poverty line observed in any country? This would seem to be a good indicator of the minimum acceptable poverty line in assessing absolute poverty. However, the answer may be quite sensitive to the particular countries surveyed and the inevitable measurement errors in assessing local poverty lines, and in comparing them across countries. It will also be influenced by inter-country differences in non-income factors; a country with good public services benefiting the poor, or a relatively low-cost climate, will naturally have a lower income poverty line. In the light of these considerations, a better approach is to try to assess a "typical" poverty line amongst the poorest countries. To implement this approach empirically in the next section, we assume that the relative component for any country is largely determined by its mean private consumption, though we allow the possibility of other factors (such as access to public services) which may also influence the poverty line. We will then be able to estimate the poverty line to be found in the poorest country, controlling for these other factors. [...]

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The lowest mean consumption amongst the 86 countries studied in the World Development Report is Somalia at $22 per person per month in 1985 PPP prices. At this point, [their regression] equation predicts a poverty line of $23, only slightly different from that of India. Thus, India's poverty line is very close to the poverty line we would predict for the poorest country, and as such, can be considered a reasonable lower bound to the range of admissible poverty lines for the developing world. [...] The $23 line is certainly on the low side of the range found amongst the poorest dozen or so countries in Figure 2. A more generous, and more representative, absolute poverty line for low-income countries is $31, which (to the nearest dollar) is shared by six of the countries in our sample, namely Indonesia, Bangladesh, Nepal, Kenya, Tanzania, and Morocco and two other countries are close to this figure (Philippines and Pakistan).

The sample of countries used was broadened substantially with the 2005 update:

The new data set on national poverty lines differs from the old (Ravallion, Datt, and van de Walle 1991) data set in four main respects. First, while the old data were drawn from sources for the 1980s (with a mean year of 1984), the new data are all post-1990 (mean of 1999), such that in no case do the proximate sources overlap. Second, the new data set covers 88 developing economies (74 with complete data for the subsequent analysis), while the old data set included only 22 developing economies (plus 11 developed countries). Third, the old data set used rural poverty lines when there was a choice, whereas the new one estimates national average lines. Fourth, the old data set was unrepresentative of Sub-Saharan Africa, with only five countries from that region (Burundi, Kenya, South Africa, Tanzania, and Zambia), whereas the new data set has a good spread across regions, including 25 countries in Sub-Saharan Africa. The proportion of African countries in the old sample was about half what it should have been to be considered representative of poor countries. The sample bias in the Ravallion, Datt, and van de Walle data set was unavoidable at the time (1990), but it can now be corrected.

In this latter model, they ended up using the mean poverty line for the 15 poorest countries as the estimator; the list of these 15 countries was

Malawi, Mali, Ethiopia, Sierra Leone, Niger, Uganda, Gambia, Rwanda, Guinea-Bissau, Tanzania, Tajikistan, Mozambique, Chad, Nepal and Ghana

This broadened base (which yielded $1.25/day for 2005) was not without controversy as it implied less than a $1/day in 1993 terms ($0.92 instead of $1.08 which a simple inflation update of the 1990 figure would have given); the number of (extremely) poor people was thus retrospectively increased by some 500 million for 1993.

In contrast the 2011 update was much less revolutionary....

Taking the average of the same 15 national poverty lines that yielded the $1.25 line in 2005 PPPs, now gives $1.88 per day in 2011 PPPs, which is rounded to $1.90 for ease of communication.

the gods from engineering
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    It might be worth noting two facts here. First, does using a different poverty line lead to different results? If a $10 per day shows an increase, that would paint a different picture. Second, this picture is heterogeneous. Extreme poverty has decreased overall, but it may have increased in Sub-Saharan Africa. That might be worth noting. – Obie 2.0 Jun 09 '19 at 17:02
  • In addition, where there's a 90% inflation in 29 years? In many countries that percentage can hit 500% in a few can hit thousands percent. – jean Jun 10 '19 at 14:47
  • @jean - I would hope they take inflation into account. Most economists do. – Obie 2.0 Jun 10 '19 at 18:22
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    Anyway, since they're using a relatively stable currency like the US dollar as their measure, only the comparatively slow inflation of the dollar should make a difference. If Zimbabwe's currency hyperinflates, it will drop relative to the dollar and the extreme poverty rate would correspondingly increase, as I understand their method. – Obie 2.0 Jun 10 '19 at 18:29
  • @Obie2.0 That stills don't take the correct picture. What matters is how much it needs to buy a meal. I doubt any economists in the USA take the potato price evolution at Zimbabwe to calculate inflation so inflation percentual of the dollar is immaterial what matter for someone in Zimbabwe is how much he/she needs to pay. In fact, all this thing on drawing a line is fantasy. All number can matter must be calculated at a regional level. All you can do is sum up the number of people in those many regions, but never cherry pick any other value – jean Jun 10 '19 at 20:17
  • @jean - You don't think potato prices are directly related to the inflation of, say, the Zimbabwe dollar (setting aside that the Zimbabwe dollar is no longer used)? If food prices rise in line with inflation, then that should be reflected in the value of a currency relative to other currencies. If they're rising faster, that would be a different matter. – Obie 2.0 Jun 10 '19 at 21:03
  • @Obie2.0 I got lost me here since the inflation WB used was US dollar. Again: It's all a fantasy to draw a line for everyone, even in the same country there are regional differences make a hard line value for poverty measurement unreliable. Get Brazil, you cannot really live with a minimum wage at São Paulo, you basically can eat (barely) or pay rent (in a gueto). In a small town in a less developed region, you can buy food and pay rent of a small house but still don't have basic public services like hospitals or schools and minimum wage is more than US$10,00 a day. – jean Jun 11 '19 at 10:51
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    All of this discussion seems to assume that human needs and wants can be translated into a one-dimensional metric labelled with a '$' sign. It's the biased perspective of people whose lives are dominated by money. (To take an example: how do you assess someone who is old and has no resources of their own, but lives in a community that takes good care of the old?) – Michael Kay Jun 11 '19 at 13:59
  • @jean: these numbers get inflation corrected in two ways: 1. inflation of local currency is already corrected by using purchasing power parity with the US$ (and the PPP "exchange rate" here is calculated with a basket of goods reflecting what poor people buy), meaning, if the local price for a meal of banana and eggs tripled during the last year, the PPP of an egg still buys an egg - but the exchange rate went from 3 LM/$PPP down to 1 LM/$PPP. – cbeleites unhappy with SX Jun 11 '19 at 18:13
  • to compare $PPP over time, the inflation rate of the US$ (for that basket) leads to the updated numbers of the poverty line (the egg now costs $ 1.90 even though it used to be only $1.00 a few years back).
  • – cbeleites unhappy with SX Jun 11 '19 at 18:13
  • @MichaelKay: which is why whole books and even web pages listing tons of different indicators of poverty/wealth are available. E.g. gapminder.org comes to my mind besides the Poor Economics book. – cbeleites unhappy with SX Jun 11 '19 at 18:16