I was trying to follow the Cartan method to find the curvature as outlined here, in the case of a static, spherically symmetric spacetime. It all seemed to work fine, and for a metric of
$$ds^2 = -a^2(r)dt^2 + b^2(r)dr^2 + c^2(r)d\theta^2 + c^2(r)\sin^2\theta d\phi^2$$
I got a scalar curvature of
$$R = \frac{2}{ab^2}(\frac{a'b'}{b} - a'') - \frac{4a'c'}{ab^2c} + \frac{4}{b^2c}(\frac{b'c'}{b} - c'') + \frac{2}{c^2}(1 - \frac{c'^2}{b^2}).$$
But I want to use the gauge where $r$ is proper length, i.e. $b(r) = 1$. Of course the problem is that $r$ may in general become timelike, and since the functions we use in this method do not absorb the minus sign, we have to treat each possibility separately. So I have to redo it with $g_{tt}$ positive and $g_{rr}$ negative.
But because the 1-forms we construct do not contain the minus sign, I don't see anything changing in the calculation of the Riemann components. Even in the last step,
${R^\rho}_{\sigma\mu\nu} = e^\rho_a {R^a}_{bcd} e^b_\sigma e^c_{\mu} e^d_{\nu}$
when calculating the inverse frame matrix via
$e^\mu_i = e^j_{\nu} \eta_{ij} g^{\mu\nu}$
since the transform is diagonal anyway, the signs in the frame and coordinate metrics just cancel out.
Well if the (1, 3) coordinate Riemann components are all the same, then so are the coordinate Ricci components. So it's only the Ricci-to-scalar step where anything changes.
$R = g^{\mu\nu}R_{\mu\nu}$
So we just flip the contributions from $R_{tt}$ and $R_{rr}$. But that has an effect that seems completely wrong to me: it wipes out the two middle terms from the expression for $R$ I had above. How could that be at all possible? We just switch which coordinate is timelike and all of a sudden the curvature has a completely different formula? I don't think so... But I've been going over and over the steps and I just don't see what I'm missing. So I'd love to hear your input!