In this post, I tried to challenge what @Richard Myers said in his answer in https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/633205/42982. I followed what he said, except I kept a common widely used notation $\overset{T}{\to}$ to imply the function assignment before and after the time reversal.
The symmetries of the action (or Lagrangian) are always symmetries of the associated Euler-Lagrange equations.
The symmetries of the Euler-Lagrange equations are not always symmetries of the associated action (or Lagrangian).
Question How do we exam the time-reversal symmetries? On the Lagrange that depends on not just the position function $\vec{x}(t)$ but also the explicit higher derivative $\frac{d^n {\vec x}( t)}{d t^n}$ and the explicit $t$ dependence: $$ L=\frac{1}{2} m \frac{d^2 \vec{x}(t) }{d t^2} -V ( \vec{x}(t), \frac{d^n {\vec x}( t)}{d t^n}, t) $$ The $V=V ( \vec{x}(t), \frac{d^n {\vec x}( t)}{d t^n}, t)$ is the potential term. The $n$ can be any positive integer $n=1,2,3,etc.$
- We check whether $L$ is time reversal invariant. This means that we follow the rule (including the suggestion by @Richard Myers that we should rewrite the old function $f(t)$ define a new function $f'(t)$ (Note: here $'$ is not a derivative but only a function labeling!!!) after the time reversal. \begin{eqnarray} { t} &\overset{T}{\to}& { t},\nonumber\\ \vec x(t) &\overset{T}{\to}& \vec x({-t}) \equiv \vec x'(t) ,\nonumber\\ \frac{d^n {\vec x}( t)}{d t^n} &\overset{T}{\to}& (-1)^n\frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n} \bigg\vert_{ \tilde t = -t} = (-1)^n\frac{d^n {\vec x'}(-\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n} \bigg\vert_{ \tilde t = -t} = \frac{d^n {\vec x'}(-\tilde t)}{d (-\tilde t)^n} \bigg\vert_{ -\tilde t = t} =\color{red}{ \frac{d^n {\vec x'}(t)}{d t^n} } , \nonumber\\ V ({\vec x}(\tilde t), \frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n}, \tilde t) \bigg\vert_{ \tilde t = t} &\overset{T}{\to}& V ({\vec x}(\tilde t), (-1)^n\frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n}, \tilde t) \bigg\vert_{ \tilde t =- t} =\color{red}{ V ({\vec x'}(t), \frac{d^n {\vec x'(t)}}{d t^n}, - t) } \nonumber \end{eqnarray}
I follow @Richard Myers advice to write down the higher time derivative on the position function.
Tt seems leading to a weird result. For any odd or even power time derivative on the position function, we still get the same form under time reversal.
Does it mean that it (like $n=1$ as the velocity) is really time reversal?
$$ \frac{d {\vec x}( t)}{d t}
\overset{T}{\to}
\color{red}{+ \frac{d {\vec x'}( t)}{d t}}
.$$
@Richard Myers advice gives a strange conclusion (!?).
Similarly, is the velocity dependent potential $V$ (or any odd $n$ power $ \frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n}$ dependent $V$)
really time reversal?
$$
V ({\vec x}(\tilde t),
\frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n},
\tilde t) \bigg\vert_{ \tilde t = t}
\overset{T}{\to}\color{red}{
V ({\vec x'}(t),
\frac{d^n {\vec x'(t)}}{d t^n},
- t) }
$$
It seems only that the odd $t$ function of $V(t)$ matter for breaking time reversal, but not the velocity dependence? It is weird!
- We also check whether the Equation Of Motion is time reversal invariant. But I think the conclusion above still holds -- it leads to the result that any even or odd $n$ power $ \frac{d^n {\vec x}(\tilde t)}{d \tilde t^n}$ dependent $V$ does not break time reversal. This seems to contradict with the common sense that the velocity-dependent potential leads to violate time reversal.
Please point out any logical flaw if there is any.
=\color{red}{ V ({\vec x'}(t), \frac{d^n {\vec x'(t)}}{d t^n},
- t) }$
– ann marie cœur May 03 '21 at 23:03=\color{red}{ V ({\vec x'}(t), \frac{d^n {\vec x'(t)}}{d t^n},
- t) }$$
– ann marie cœur May 03 '21 at 23:05=\color{blue}{ V ({\vec x'}(t), (-1)^n\frac{d^n {\vec x'(t)}}{d t^n},
- t) }$$
– ann marie cœur May 03 '21 at 23:06