0

This question is related to this one I asked some time ago: Reason for Symmetry of stress tensors. The reason behind the symmetry of the Cauchy stress tensor seems to be Cauchy's Lemma. Once you accept that the traction vectors $t^{(n)}=-t^{(-n)}$, one can derive step by step that the tensor must indeed be symmetric. Now my question is: What is the proof of Cauchy's Lemma? It is obviously related to Newton's third law, but a force on one side of a body (e. g. a cube) can also be balanced e. g. by friction created by pressing on adjacent sides rather than exerting an opposing force on the opposite side (c. f. picture in my post linked above). So how can we state that $t^{(n)}=-t^{(-n)}$?

Another thing that bugs me a bit: I sense the traction vectors (and corresponding stress components) must be the mean values over the infinitesimal areas $dA$, whose lines of effect are made to pass through the center of mass of the (infinitesimal) body, which would necessitate to also take into account the moments created by the force distribution over $dA$. However, the literature always states that the lever arms are infinitesimal and thus moments need not be regarded. Since all dimensions are infinitesimal, this claim to me seems hard to accept without proof... enter image description here

1 Answers1

0

For a small volume, with one of the vertex in a point $P = (x,y,z)$, the average forces acting on its faces can be splitted in 3 orthogonal components.

Let's take the axis $x$ and the faces normal to the axis at $P$.

The components at $x$ are:
$F_x(x) = \sigma_{xx}(x)\Delta y\Delta z$
$F_y(x) = \sigma_{xy}(x)\Delta y\Delta z$
$F_z(x) = \sigma_{xz}(x)\Delta y\Delta z$

The components at $(x+\Delta x, y, z)$ are:
$F_x(x+\Delta x) = \sigma_{xx}(x+\Delta x)\Delta y\Delta z$
$F_y(x+\Delta x) = \sigma_{xy}(x+\Delta x)\Delta y\Delta z$
$F_z(x+\Delta x) = \sigma_{xz}(x+\Delta x)\Delta y\Delta z$

For the faces normal to $y$-axis at $P$:
$F_x(y) = \sigma_{yx}(y)\Delta x\Delta z$
$F_y(y) = \sigma_{yy}(y)\Delta x\Delta z$
$F_z(y) = \sigma_{yz}(y)\Delta x\Delta z$

The components at $(x,y+\Delta y,z)$ are:
$F_x(y+\Delta y) = \sigma_{yx}(y+\Delta y)\Delta x\Delta z$
$F_y(y+\Delta y) = \sigma_{yy}(y+\Delta y)\Delta x\Delta z$
$F_z(y+\Delta y) = \sigma_{yz}(y+\Delta y)\Delta x\Delta z$

For the faces normal to $z$-axis at $P$
$F_x(z) = \sigma_{zx}(z)\Delta x\Delta y$
$F_y(z) = \sigma_{zy}(z)\Delta x\Delta y$
$F_z(z) = \sigma_{zz}(z)\Delta x\Delta y$

The components at $(x,y,z+\Delta z)$ are:
$F_x(z+\Delta z) = \sigma_{zx}(z+\Delta z)\Delta x\Delta y$
$F_y(z+\Delta z) = \sigma_{zy}(z+\Delta z)\Delta x\Delta y$
$F_z(z+\Delta z) = \sigma_{zz}(z+\Delta z)\Delta x\Delta y$

The small volume can be at rest but in a gravitational field, or can be accelerated. In any case, (or both) that effect can be represented by a body force per unit of volume $\mathbf b(x,y,z) = \mu \mathbf g - \mu \mathbf a$ acting at the center of gravity of the volume. After including the body forces, the sum of the forces in each direction must be zero. For example in $x$:

$\sigma_{xx}(x)\Delta y\Delta z + \sigma_{xx}(x+\Delta x)\Delta y\Delta z + \sigma_{yx}(y)\Delta x\Delta z + \sigma_{yx}(y+\Delta y)\Delta x\Delta z + \sigma_{zx}(z)\Delta x\Delta y + \sigma_{zx}(z+\Delta z)\Delta x\Delta y + b_x\Delta x\Delta y\Delta z = 0$

When $\Delta x -> 0$, while keeping $\Delta y\Delta z$ unchanged, only 2 terms remain:

$\sigma_{xx}(x)\Delta y\Delta z + \sigma_{xx}(x+\Delta x)\Delta y\Delta z = 0$

So it is valid that: $\sigma_{xx}(x) = -\sigma_{xx}(x+\Delta x)$ when $\Delta x -> 0$, what is the same as to say that the traction forces are equal and opposing at a surface.

Note that if we let $\Delta y -> 0$ or $\Delta z -> 0$ instead of $\Delta x$, we get the same result for the shear stresses.

The same procedure can be made for the components in $y$ and $z$ direction.

  • Thank you for your answer. It gets me one step closer. But let us assume that $\Delta x, \Delta y$ and $\Delta z$ are all equal and go to $0$, which is a valid case. That would mean we can (by division) get rid of two infinitesimals in every summand in your above equation, which means the $b_x$ term still cancels out since it still is multiplied by one infinitesimal, but the stress terms remain. This leaves us with 1 equation for 6 unknowns, which is insufficient to prove equivalence of any stress components. What am I missing (since obviously the equivalence must hold in this case as well) ? – chicken_game Aug 20 '20 at 09:20
  • I think that the key is exactly let one of the deltas go to zero each time. But if you divide by the product $\Delta x\Delta y\Delta z$, and let all of them go to zero, you will get div.$\mathbf \sigma + b = 0$, what is the basic elastic differential equation. – Claudio Saspinski Aug 20 '20 at 14:47
  • That's strange... If it is generally valid we shouldn't have to fumble with the order in which we apply the limits. With the balance equation stated above, the equivalence becomes an axiom for an infinitesimal cube, which cannot be the "real deal". There must be some way to prove it without restrictions to the dimensions. I've racked my brain over it for some time now but haven't figured it out... – chicken_game Aug 21 '20 at 17:40
  • Well, I think we can postulate that all dimensions are infinitesimal and then still make a cut through the body e. g. at $x+\Delta a$ where $\Delta a\to\Delta x$ (same for the other dimensions). Since the stress functions are naturally continuous, they are constant over infinitesimal intervals (e.g $\sigma_x(x)=\sigma_x(x+\Delta a)$ (as long as we keep looking at the same section side. Thus we can indeed see that the respective stresses on opposing section sides cancel out each other. At first it seemed a bit weird to me to make a section through an infinitesimal, but it should be legitimate. – chicken_game Aug 23 '20 at 12:45