0

The wave function (this is the wave function in mechanical waves. It is not the wave equation, which is derived from this wave function. Neither is this the wave function for quantum mechanics!) is given as: \begin{align} y(x,t)&=A\cos(kx \pm \omega t + \phi) \end{align} (where $k$ is the wavenumber, $x$ is the position, $A$ is the amplitude, $\omega$ is the angular frequency, $t$ is the time, and $\phi$ is the phase difference)

From my knowledge, the $\pm$ in front of $\omega t$ is to account for wave direction. However, mathematically, I am unable to intuitively understand or even picture why this $\pm$ sign in front of $\omega t$ (which accounts for the time dependency of the wave function) should account for direction. Hence, may I know the connection between this $\pm$ sign and the direction of the wave propagation? Thank you!

Lucas Tan
  • 183
  • Hint: Solve for the positions of crests and troughs in an $(x,t)$ diagram. – Qmechanic May 22 '20 at 11:06
  • To clarify, I should calculate the number of crests and troughs? Or should I solve for something else, if so, what exactly? – Lucas Tan May 22 '20 at 11:13
  • @LucasTan you should calculate positions of the crests and how these positions depend on time. – Ruslan May 22 '20 at 11:48
  • That isn't the wave function. That is just a possible solution to the wave equation. – BioPhysicist May 22 '20 at 11:58
  • 1
  • @BioPhysicist thank you for sharing that post! For some reason when I tried to find my question on stack exchange, I didn't find this post, it was really helpful. To summarise my new understanding, if we follow a section of a wave that is moving, its phase must remain constant, hence the expression within the cosine must remain constant. As x decreases, time must increase, if x moves in the opposite direction (i.e. increases), time must decrease. Hence we put the plusminus sign in front of the time term to ensure the phase is constant. Could I clarify that my current understanding is accurate? – Lucas Tan May 22 '20 at 13:01

0 Answers0