When we derive gravitational potential it is dependant only on (rest) mass $m$, but i have seen a derivation of gravitational redshift equation placing relativistic mass $\widetilde{m}$ instead of rest mass $m$ like this:
$$ \begin{split} W_1 &= W_2\\ h\nu_1 + 0 &= h \nu_2 + \left(-\frac{GM \widetilde{m}}{r}\right)\\ h\nu_1 &= h \nu_2 -\frac{GM \widetilde{m}}{r}\\ h\nu_1 &= h \nu_2 -\frac{GM h \nu_{2}}{c^2r}\\ \nu_1 &= \nu_2 \left(1 -\frac{GM}{c^2r} \right)\\ \end{split} $$
I think this is wrong! What led me to this conclusion? In my other topic people warned me that i can't use $\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ for a photon. So i think that i have no right to swap $m$ with $\widetilde{m}$ than state that photon has mass and use $\widetilde{m}$ in equation:
$$ W_p = -\frac{GMm}{r} $$
Photon has mass $m=0$ period! And should be unaffected by gravitational field. I know experiments show us different story but still...
QUESTION 1: I would need some explaination on this fragile topic.
QUESTION 2: Could anyone tell me allso when i have the right to use relativistic mass $\widetilde{m}$?
You cannot mix newtonian gravity or the result is nonsense. Finding the solution to that nonsense took Einstein a decade, and the result was the General Theory of Relativity.
– Eduardo Guerras Valera Jan 20 '13 at 03:25