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A technical question about the electromagnetic tensor, but before that, it is know if, say, instead of being $$F_{\mu\nu}=\partial_{\mu}A_{\nu} - \partial_{\nu}A_{\mu}$$it were $$F_{\mu\nu}=(...)_{\mu\nu}-(....)_{\mu\nu}$$ I am giving an example of the electromagnetric tensor because it is a 2-form, instead of F you can tay any 2-form.

Now my question is, can this be written (As a short cut or whatever) as $$F=(...)-(....)$$ with swallowing the indices?

This procedure I saw in some 1-forms, of only one index ($\mu$) $$A_\mu=(...)_{\mu}-(....)_{\mu}$$ and it then is the case where we can swallow the index and we get $$A=(...)-(....)$$ I was wondering if we can do that in the 2-form case and why is it applicable?

Qmechanic
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3 Answers3

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We do not "swallow" the index. You must distignuish between the geometrical object and its components, and that is not unique to forms, but occurs for all vectors:

If you have a vector $v\in V$, where $V$ is some vector space, it has no indices. It's just an element. Now, if you choose a basis $e_1,\dots,e_n$ of the space, you write $$ v = v^\mu e_\mu$$ and physicists often call the collection of components $v^\mu$ together with their transformation behaviour "the vector".

Now, a $k$-form $\omega$ on a (spacetime) manifold $M$ is a map that assigns to every point $p\in M$ an antisymmetric $k$-tensor $\omega_p$, i.e. $\omega_p$ eats $k$ tangent vectors $v_1,\dots,v_n\in T_p M$ (formally, we have $\omega_p \in \bigwedge T^*_p M$). This means $\omega_p(v_1,\dots,v_n)$ is finally a number, and, as a geometric object, $\omega$ is a map $M \to \bigwedge^k T^* M$.

Now, physicists don't like to talk about these abstract objects for some reason, and prefer dealing with their components alone: Given coordinates $x^\mu$ on $M$, the tangent vectors have a natural basis in the $\partial_\mu = \frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}$, i.e. we can expand $v = v^\mu \partial_\mu$.

Correspondingly, the cotangent space $T_p^* M$ has a dual basis denoted by $\mathrm{d}x^\mu$ defined by the relation $\mathrm{d}x^\mu(\partial_\nu) = \delta^\mu{}_\nu$.

We now just write $x$ for a point on the manifold and have now two ways to look at the "components" $\omega_{\mu_1\dots\mu_k}(x)$ of $\omega$:

  • Put the basis vectors in: $\omega_{\mu_1\dots\mu_k}(x) := \omega_x(\partial_{\mu_1},\dots,\partial_{\mu_k})$

  • Expand $\omega_x$ in the basis $\mathrm{d}x^{\mu_1}\wedge\dots\wedge\mathrm{d}x^{\mu_k}$ of wedges of cotangent vectors: $$ \omega_x = c_{\mu_1\dots\mu_k}\mathrm{d}x^{\mu_1}\wedge\dots\wedge\mathrm{d}x^{\mu_k}$$ and call the coefficients $c_{\mu_1\dots\mu_k}$ then $\omega_{\mu_1\dots\mu_k}(x)$.

So, when a physicist writes $F^{\mu\nu}$, they mean by definition that there is a $2$ form $$ F : M \to T^* M \wedge T^* M$$ which may be written as $$ F = F_{\mu\nu}\mathrm{d}x^\mu\wedge\mathrm{d}x^\nu$$ or, depending on the convention, as $$ F = \frac{1}{2}F_{\mu\nu}\mathrm{d}x^\mu\wedge\mathrm{d}x^\nu$$ since many people introduce a $\frac{1}{k!}$ into the components of a $k$-form to cancel out the "overcounting" of values that occurs due to the antisymmetry properties.

To finally answer your question:

No, $F$ is not a shorthand for $F^{\mu\nu}$ in the usual sense of a short hand. $F$ is the actual geometric object and $F^{\mu\nu}$ are its components in a particular coordinate basis. And, whatever you may have seen, we have $A = A_\mu\mathrm{d}x^\mu$ for $1$-forms, so you may also not use $A$ as a "shorthand" for $A^\mu$ - again, one is the geometric object, the other are its components.

Ryan Unger
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ACuriousMind
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In the context of the mathematics of differential geometry, the concept of differential forms is made more precise. It is an invariant object, and does not transform under coordinate changes. In particular, they are not objects that 'inherently' come with indices, so a 2-form like the electromagnetic field tensor would be expressed by mathematicians as simply $F$. In local coordinates, one can write this as $F=F_{\mu\nu}\mathrm{d} x^\mu\wedge\mathrm{d} x^\nu$, but this is only locally true (we usually don't give a rat's ass about this in physics though, since we typically deal with only a single chart at a time in e.g. GR).

In physics, we tend to totally forget about the invariant nature of forms (or tensors more generally) and focus only on the components, e.g. $F_{\mu\nu}$ instead of $F$, which transform under coordinate transformations. This is all just fine (and is actually the historical way of doing things) but it also causes a lot of physicists to be unaware of what these forms really are, which is not so great. In conclusion: A differential form is an object that is invariant under coordinate transformations and is defined independent of local coordinates. In particular, it does not naturally have indices and writing $F$ for a 2-form is actually technically more correct than $F_{\mu\nu}$ which just denotes its components in an (arbitrary) coordinate chart. However, note that $F_{\mu\nu}\neq F$, so we can never use $F$ as just a shorthand.

Danu
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  • So in simple terms, you are telling me that I can write as $$F=(...)-(....)$$ instead of $$F_{\mu\nu}=(...){\mu\nu}-(....){\mu\nu}$$?

    Another thing, why I asked is because I can't seem to understand how can you drop indices in he case where $$F_{\mu\nu}=\partial_{\mu}A_{\nu}-\partial_{\nu}A_{\mu}$$

    – beyondtheory May 25 '15 at 11:04
  • Another reason that I am asking this because in the one form case, I wrote in my question, $$\partial^{\mu}A_{\mu}=d(A)$$ Is it also the case that we can write, for my purposes, $$d(F)$$ if we dropped the indices? – beyondtheory May 25 '15 at 11:29
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As Danu said, indices are not "natural" part of tensor fields, they are just a pretty outdated formalism of dealing with them. Unfortunately or fortunately, it is also a pretty well-working and efficient formalism, at least in general relativity. Electrodynamics and classical mechanics would be better off using differential form notation imo...

Anyways, the expression $$ F_{\mu\nu}=\partial_\mu A_\nu-\partial_\nu A_\mu $$ has no immediate generalization to index-free formalism that also preserves this equation's general form. The $\partial$ operator involves differentiation of components, and the result is generally nontensorial, (even if partials are often used in coordinate component-based treatment) thus it has no index-free form.

The above expression is the coordinate component form of a differential operator defined on differential forms called the exterior derivative, so the above equation looks like $$ F=\mathrm{d}A $$in index-free notation, where $\mathrm{d}$ is the exterior derivative.

Bence Racskó
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  • hank you, but please check my comments under Danu's answer. My question is more specifically about those and if I can write the form I presented $$F_{\mu\nu}=(...){\mu\nu} -(....){\mu\nu}$$ as $$F=(...)-(....)$$ and thus $$\partial^{\mu}F_{\mu\nu}=dF$$

    where $$F_{\mu\nu}$$ here equal to $$F_{\mu\nu}=(...){\mu\nu} -(....){\mu\nu}$$

    – beyondtheory May 25 '15 at 11:58
  • I'm sorry, but you question, in this case makes no sense to me. It would be good if you could rephrase it in some ways and also include what is it you are trying to achieve with it. Also please note that whilst notations to an extent arbitrary, as long as you state them beforehand, in treatments of differential forms $d$ always refers to the exterior derivative, and as such $\partial^\mu F_{\mu\nu}=dF$ makes absolutely no sense (not to mention you are trying to use index and abstract notation at the same time!). – Bence Racskó May 25 '15 at 12:16
  • Ok 4hen nevermind abou4 my las4 question and please tell me if I am capable of writing $$F_{\mu\nu}=(...){\mu\nu}-(....){\mu\nu}$$ as $$F = (...)-(....)$$ – beyondtheory May 25 '15 at 12:19
  • Well, considering that the set of all smooth 2-forms over a smooth manifold is a vector space (and a bimodule as well), it is absolutely possible to write any element as a sum of other elements, but in this case, for what reason? – Bence Racskó May 25 '15 at 12:22
  • For the soul reason of dropping the indices, as I said, I saw i done in 1-forms and wanted to know if i is applicable in 2-forms. Say, you want to find E.O.M, and it turns out that your dual tensor look like the F I presented in the previous comment. I wanted to know if I can drop the indices, can I find the E.O.M by setting d(F)=0. – beyondtheory May 25 '15 at 12:41
  • @Uldreth as detailed in a "famous answer" by Ron Maimon, the index formalism is actually pretty great in many situation. In CM & ED we never end up using "big" tensors so it's not a big deal to switch between the two anyways, so I guess I can agree with you on that. – Danu May 25 '15 at 14:23
  • @Danu Yeah, I consider the geometers' notation to be superior in describing structures, however I realize it handles contractions very pathologically. In GR it is a problem, because many contractions are involved in complicated expressions, and also differential forms are not used systematically in GR except maybe vector-valued forms in very advanced treatment. The reason I consider abstract formalism superior in CM & ED is because those use differential forms systematically, and differential forms notation is as simple as vector calculus notation when used "directly". – Bence Racskó May 25 '15 at 14:28
  • If you want to do contractions in an index-free manner, and still you may want to try clifford algebra. For instance, differential forms would require you to write $\partial^\mu F_{\mu \nu}$ as $\star d (\star F)$. Clifford algebra would just denote it $\partial \cdot F$ instead. – Muphrid May 25 '15 at 15:37