16

Let quadratic mapping be the function from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$, where each coordinate is a quadratic form of $n$ variables. Are there any known criteria for it being surjective? May somebody give relevant references too?

Pietro Majer
  • 56,550
  • 4
  • 116
  • 260
  • 5
    What is the connection with representation theory? – Douglas Zare Dec 31 '13 at 14:58
  • The problem is linked to representation theory via invariant theory. – Rampant_mouse Jan 02 '14 at 14:05
  • Nice question. But the two posted `answers' are really very far from answers and -- in my opinion -- should be deleted. – JHM Jan 02 '14 at 20:30
  • Criterion in terms of what? Foe $n=2$, there is a classification; it may serve as a source for further guessing: Alex Degtyarev. Quadratic transformations Rp2 --> Rp2. In: Topology of Real Algebraic Varieties and Related Topics, Amer. Math. Soc. Transl. (2), 173 (1996), 61-73. – Alex Degtyarev Jan 02 '14 at 22:54
  • @AlexDegtyarev: Could you be so generous as to elaborate in the form of an answer. I am unclear why the pull-back is quadric, why I must hope for degeneration, and what is a `double' hyperplane? – JHM Jan 03 '14 at 17:08
  • I must admit that i don't believe your claim that quadratic maps are `almost never surjective'. They seem to as stable as "sets of open cones covering R^n". But, I am also unclear on whether or not we can expect a typical quadratic map $Q=(q_1, \ldots, q_n)$ to have the origin as an isolated solution to $Q=0$ or to have $d(\sum q_i^2)$ vanish only at the origin? – JHM Jan 03 '14 at 17:25
  • Sorry, my bad. Regarded as $Rp^n\to Rp^n$, your maps already are non-generic as needed. I remove my comment. – Alex Degtyarev Jan 03 '14 at 18:42

6 Answers6

6

If $n=2$ the quadratic map $\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}^2$ with $(x_1,x_2)\mapsto (x_1^2-x_2^2,2x_1x_2)$ is surjective. This follows because the map $\mathbb{C}\to\mathbb{C}$ with $z\mapsto z^2$ is surjective. Hence there exist real quadratic maps $\mathbb{R}^{2m}\to\mathbb{R}^{2m}$ for all even values of $n$. (Identify $\mathbb{R}^{2m}$ and $\mathbb{C}^m$ and consider $(z_1,\dots,z_m)\mapsto(z_1^2,\dots,z_m^2)$.) For $n=1$ a quadratic map $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is not surjective. The question can thus be rephrased: for which values of $m\geq1$ is there a real quadratic surjective map $\mathbb{R}^{2m+1}\to\mathbb{R}^{2m+1}$?

Glasby
  • 1,961
  • 4
    This is a nice remark, but it does not settle the case of even dimension. The OP asks for a criterium... – Pietro Majer Dec 31 '13 at 12:02
  • Still I am curious to know whether the map can be surjective for $n$ odd $\geq 3$? – abx Dec 31 '13 at 15:13
  • @abx Are you asking if a surjective map exists for odd n >= 3 ? – joro Dec 31 '13 at 15:32
  • Yes (a quadratic map). – abx Dec 31 '13 at 15:34
  • @abx I suspect invertible quadratic map exist with constant det(jacobian) and explicit polynomial inverse. – joro Dec 31 '13 at 15:36
  • It is easy to see that the surjective quadratic mappings exist in every dimension. For example in dimension 3 it is the following mapping: – Rampant_mouse Jan 02 '14 at 14:07
  • 2
    y1 = 2 * x1 * x3; y2 = 2 * x2 * x3; y3 = x3^2 - x1^2 - x2^2. To see it is enough to write it in polar coordinates. For higher dimensions the situation is same yj = 2 * xj * xn; yn = xn^2 - squares of other variables – Rampant_mouse Jan 02 '14 at 14:33
5

Some comments.

Check this question and the comments.

A paper from the answer

Proposition 6. No algorithm is possible that, given a polynomial mapping $f : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ with computable coefficients, decides whether this mapping is surjective.

On the other hand another answer gives relatively efficient criterion for deciding if the map is bijective over $\mathbb{Q}$ (this implies surjective).

joro
  • 24,174
  • 2
  • Here the polynomial mapping is polynomial, but of quite a special form. Is the quoted proposition true even in this very particular class?
  • The OP means a map whose coordinates are quadratic forms, i.e. homogeneous polynomials of degree 2. If we allow linear terms then it is very easy to build examples of invertible maps.
  • – Pietro Majer Dec 31 '13 at 16:05
  • @PietroMajer thanks, I see, misread the question. – joro Dec 31 '13 at 16:11
  • @joro: in my opinion your `answer' needlessly clutters this particular question and deserves to be deleted. – JHM Jan 02 '14 at 20:45
  • 4
    Disagree with J. Martel, at least for me, joro's answer nice "sharing of knowledge" even if it does not precisely match the question – Alexander Chervov Jan 04 '14 at 12:11
  • 2
    The paper you quote has what I consider a misleading framing of the problem: Their map contains a computable number $a$ and the map will be surjective iff $a \neq 0$; there is no algorithm which takes a description of a computable number and determines whether it is zero. If you give your mapping $f$ in a more concrete manner (for example, with coefficients in $\mathbb{Q}$), then this will be computable by Tarski's Theorem http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TarskisTheorem.html . – David E Speyer Jan 13 '14 at 18:37