This question is inspired by the formula $$\displaystyle\int_0^1{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}\!\!dx={1\over2^2}+{1\over3^2}+{1\over4^2}+\cdots = \zeta(2)-1,$$ see for instance this question.
It appears that for any integer $n\geq 0$, we have
$$\int_0^1 \lfloor x^{-1} \rfloor^{-1} x^n dx = \frac{1}{n+1}(\zeta(2)+\zeta(3) + \dots + \zeta(n+2) ) - 1.$$
I believe that Yiorgos' answer could be generalized to prove the above formula. Can anyone pull it off?
Side question: If $n$ is replaced by a complex number $s$, for which values of $s$ does the integral converge? (We interpret $x^s$ as $\exp(x\log s)$, where $\log s$ is the principal branch of the complex log.) If the above formula is true, then for any integer $n\geq 0$, have $$\int_0^1 \lfloor x^{-1} \rfloor^{-1} ((n+1)x^n-nx^{n-1}) dx = \zeta(n+2) - 1.$$ Is it true that for complex value of $s$ for which the integral converges, we have $$\int_0^1 \lfloor x^{-1} \rfloor^{-1} ((s+1)x^s-sx^{s-1}) dx = \zeta(s+2)-1?$$