I'm trying to solve a differential equation but I get to the point in which I have to solve this:
$$\int {\frac {y(x)' (1-y(x)^2)}{y(x)^3}} dx$$
I don't understand how to do it. I think it's related to some property I don't know, but the $y(x)'$ is throwing me off. I tried looking at Wolfram's step by step but I don't understand it.
Thanks for any help.
Context: Original function to solve is $(v^3) du + (u^3-uv^2) dv = 0$.
I used a variable change: $y = \dfrac uv$. I'm not sure if it's correct or anything though.
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1What is the differential equation you're trying to solve? How does this integral come up? If you're using separation of variable there shouldn't be a $y'$ in any integral. – DanZimm Jun 06 '14 at 06:26
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1Hint: use the chain rule. – David H Jun 06 '14 at 06:27
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Also welcome to MSE! – DanZimm Jun 06 '14 at 06:27
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@DavidH Oh, I always forget the chain rule for integrals. Thanks! – Paula Jun 06 '14 at 06:32
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And @DanZimm I used first a change of variables, edited the question for context if you're curious :). And thanks for the welcome! – Paula Jun 06 '14 at 06:33
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Perhaps of interest is this question. – Git Gud Jun 06 '14 at 06:38
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Using the obvious change of variables $y=y(x) \implies dy=y'(x)\,dx$, your integral becomes:
$$\int {\frac {y(x)' (1-y(x)^2)}{y(x)^3}} dx=\int {\frac {1-y^2}{y^3}} dy\\ =\int y^{-3}dy-\int y^{-1}dy\\ =-\frac12 y^{-2}-\log{y}+constant$$
David H
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The differential equation simplifies a lot if you use $$u(v)=\frac{v}{y(v)}$$ (which is basically the reciprocal of what you chose).
After replacement and simplifications (there are several), you should arrive to $$1-v y(v) \frac{dy(v)}{dv}=0$$ for which the solution is simply $$y(v)= \sqrt{c_1+2\log (v)}$$ from which $$u(v)=\frac{v}{\sqrt{c_1+2 \log (v)}}$$
Claude Leibovici
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You are really welcome. I don't have any merit since I noticed that after your change of variable the equation was almost as complex as the initial one. So, I took the reciprocal ! Cheers and again welcome to this site. – Claude Leibovici Jun 06 '14 at 07:56