Problem : In the total purchase amount $z, x\%$ is tax and $y\%$ is discount. Even if the tax is applied first and then discount or if discount is applied and then tax, the final amount is always same. How to prove this mathematically ?
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The final amount in the first case $$z\left(1+\frac x{100}\right)\left(1-\frac y{100}\right)$$
The final amount in the second case $$z\left(1-\frac y{100}\right)\left(1+\frac x{100}\right)$$
lab bhattacharjee
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Adding (or subtracting) tax or discount is in fact a multipication. To add $x\,\%$, you multiply with $1+\frac x{100}$; to subtract $y\,\%$, you multiply with $1-\frac{y}{100}$. So waht you observe is just that the order of multiplication does not matter ("commutativity of multiplication"). (Well, yes, associativity is also used).
Strictly speaking, due to rounding effects of intermediate results, minor differences in cents may occur.
Hagen von Eitzen
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Thanks Hagen for explaining it – Karthik Apr 13 '14 at 14:16
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what if the tax is inclusive or exclusive? – Smith Sep 14 '21 at 20:07