Consider a particle that performs a random walk on the integers starting at position 0. At each step, the particle moves from position i to position i+1 with probability p, while the probability it moves from i to i−1 is 1−p. If p = $\frac{1}{3}$, find the probability the particle ever reaches position 1.
I thought this was a simple Markov chain problem that I can solve with a recursive expression. My reasoning was as follows, either the particle moves directly from 0 to 1 with probability $\frac{1}{3}$, or it could move back to -1 and then back to 0 with probability $\frac{2}{3}*\frac{1}{3}$. Then it has the same probability to go to 1 as it's back in the initial position. Formulating this:
$x = \frac{1}{3} + (\frac{2}{3}*\frac{1}{3})x$
$x = \frac{3}{7}$
However, the answer is $\frac{1}{2}$. What is wrong with my logic?