There is a bit in the proof, the link, I couldn't understand. "There exists a sequence $(Π)$ of partitions, such that for each $$,$Π$ is an $+1/$-partition" How are we sure that there is a $+1/$-partition of the set $A$ for all $n$? https://math.stackexchange.com/a/641727/1112387
Asked
Active
Viewed 16 times
