If $c_1, c_2$ are positive then the angle bisector of the acute angle between the lines $a_1x+b_1y+c_1=0$ and $a_2x+b_2y+c_2=0$ is
$\frac{a_1x+b_1y+c_1}{\sqrt{a_1^2+b_1^2}}=\frac{a_2x+b_2y+c_2}{\sqrt{a_2^2+b_2^2}}$, if $a_1a_2+b_1b_2\lt0$
$\frac{a_1x+b_1y+c_1}{\sqrt{a_1^2+b_1^2}}=-\frac{a_2x+b_2y+c_2}{\sqrt{a_2^2+b_2^2}}$, if $a_1a_2+b_1b_2\gt0$
I wonder what the proof for this is.
I understand the perpendicular distances from a point to the lines are being equated. My doubt is regarding the signs taken.
If the angle between the lines is $\theta$ then the angle between the bisector and either of the lines is $\frac\theta2$.
Using the formula for angle between two lines, if $|\tan\frac\theta2|$ comes out to be less than $1$ then the acute angle is being bisected by the line in concern. Or if $|\tan\frac\theta2|\gt1$ then the obtuse angle.
But how to find that direct relation with $a_1a_2, b_1b_2$?
My Attempt:
Let the slopes of the given lines be $m_1, m_2$. Thus, $m_1=-\frac {a_1}{b_1}$ and $m_2=-\frac {a_2}{b_2}$
If $m_1m_2=-1$ then the lines are perpendicular.
If $m_1m_2\lt-1$ then can we say the angle between them is acute?
If yes, we get $-\frac{a_1}{b_1}\cdot-\frac{a_2}{b_2}\lt-1$, thus, $a_1a_2+b_1b_2\lt0$
But from this, how do we conclude that the angle bisector would be obtained by taking a plus sign in the formula?