Given that $$ \sum_{n \ge 1} \frac{a_n}{n^s} = \sum_{n \ge 1} \frac{b_n}{n^s}, $$ for all complex values of $s$ and where $a_n$ and $b_n$ are non-negative integers, can we say that $a_n = b_n$ for all $n$?
Genesis of the question: While studying the basics of Gaussian integers, I came across such an equation in https://www.maths.nottingham.ac.uk/plp/pmzcw/download/fnt_chap5.pdf (page 7).
Ideas: Of course if you replace the denominators $\{1^s, 2^s, 3^s, \dots\}$ with variables $\{x_1, x_2, x_3,\dots\}$ or $\{x, x^2, x^3, \dots\}$ then, it will be true. But we cannot do that.
I don't think induction will work.