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Given a real symmetric matrix $S$ of order $n$, assuming $\mathbf{x} \equiv \mathbf{e}_i$ with $i \in [1,\,n]$ we have:

$$ \mathbf{x}^t\,S\,\mathbf{x} = s_{i,i} $$

so if $s_{i,i}=0$ for at least one $i \in [1,\,n]$ it follows that $S$ cannot be definite (positive or negative).

If in addition $\det(S) \ne 0$, then all the eigenvalues of $S$ aren't zero and consequently $S$ is indefinite.

In this way we have proof a first thesis:

$$ \color{blue}{\boxed{\text{If a non-singular real symmetric matrix has a zero on the diagonal it's indefinite.}}} $$

On the other hand, after some numerical experiments, I noticed that $\det(S)=0$ implies that $S$ is a semi-definite matrix (positive or negative) only when the i-th row considered is all zeros.

This leads me to formulate a second thesis:

$$ \color{green}{\boxed{\text{If a real symmetric matrix has a non-zero row with a zero on the diagonal it's indefinite.}}} $$

For $n = 1$ or $n = 2$ the thesis is trivially true, while for $n = 3$ I thought I'd consider:

$$ S = \begin{bmatrix} a & b & c \\ b & d & e \\ c & e & \color{\red}{0} \\ \end{bmatrix} $$

under the condition $c^2+e^2\ne 0$ and we start with the calculation of the determinant:

$$ \det(S) = 2\,b\,c\,e - a\,e^2 - c^2\,d\,. $$

Having done this, it's evident that if $c=0$ the determinant vanishes only if $a=0$ and in this case:

$$ \text{eig}(S) = \left\{0,\,\frac{d\pm\sqrt{d^2+4\left(b^2+e^2\right)}}{2}\right\} $$

where the two non-zero eigenvalues are always discordant and therefore $S$ is indefinite.

On the other hand, if $c \ne 0$ the determinant vanishes only if $d = \frac{2\,b\,c\,e-a\,e^2}{c^2}$ and in this other case:

$$ \text{eig}(S) = \left\{0,\,\frac{a\,c^2+\left(2\,b\,c-a\,e\right)e \pm \sqrt{c^2+e^2}\sqrt{a^2\,c^2+\left(2\,b\,c-a\,e\right)^2+4\,c^4}}{2\,c^2}\right\} $$

where the two non-zero eigenvalues are always discordant and therefore $S$ is indefinite.

For $n > 3$ the calculations get too complicated, ideas on how to proceed? Thanks!

Monster
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    your matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & \text{i} \ 1 & \text{i} & \color{\red}{0} \ \end{bmatrix}$ is not "semi-definite" as asserted since it is complex but non-real and not Hermitian. – user8675309 May 10 '22 at 15:35
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    "On the other hand, after some numerical experiments, I noticed that det()=0 implies that is a semi-definite matrix (positive or negative) only when the i-th row considered is all zeros." why don't you prove this statement to yourself. Hint: suppose matrix is PSD and write $A = B^TB$. Alternatively: I infer you've already proven the $2\times 2$ case so apply the generalized sylvester criterion for PSD matrices https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4145638/a-is-positive-semidefinite-iff-textdet-b-k-geq-0/ (and re-use said $2\times 2$ case) – user8675309 May 10 '22 at 18:29
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    I suppose you could do it that way. Spectral theorem isn't needed per se, just basic congruence. Anyway if $A=B^TB$ then $a_{i,i}=0= \big \Vert \mathbf b_i\big \Vert_2^2\implies \mathbf b_i = \mathbf 0$ thus $\mathbf b_i^T\mathbf b_k =0$ for all of row/col i. – user8675309 May 13 '22 at 15:25

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