While trying to solve a problem, I came up with the following claim:
- $\textbf{Claim.}$ If $X_\alpha$ is homotopy equivalent to $Y_\alpha$ for each index $\alpha$, then the wedge sums $\bigvee_\alpha X_\alpha$ are $\bigvee_\alpha Y_\alpha$ are homotopy equivalent.
If we assume further that the homotopy equivalences $X_\alpha \simeq Y_\alpha$ are appropriately pointed, then I can work out a proof for the claim. However, I could not come up with anything for the general case.
I do suspect that the general claim is false, since there is seemingly no way to guarantee that the obvious 'stitched' map is a homotopy equivalence.
So I guess my question is, is the claim actually true, or is there a counterexample?
EDIT: I forgot to mention that $X_\alpha$ and $Y_\alpha$ are assumed to be path connected. Without this assumption the claim is false as mentioned by freakish in the comments.