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I read the statement that, for a multiplicative function $h(n)$ we have $$\sum_{n<x} h(n)n^a \sim R \frac{x^{a+1}}{a+1}$$ where $$R := \prod_p \left(1 - \frac 1p \right) \left( 1 + \frac{h(p)}{p} + \frac{h(p^2)}{p^2} + \cdots \right).$$

Where does it come from and under which conditions on $h$? Is there a way to see the result in "integration" terms? (there is a residue/arithmetic part, but the remainder of the result looks like direct integration)

Wirdspan
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  • It is not true in general, the conditions are those of the Tauberian theorems proving the PNT (usually satisfied for the functions appearing naturally in analytic number theory). Under much stronger assumptions there is a one line proof, see https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3943795/how-to-determine-the-residue-of-an-arithmetic-dirichlet-series/3945337#3945337 (the asymptotic for $\sum_{n\le x} h(n)$ gives the asymptotic for $\sum_{n\le x} h(n) n^a$ by partial summation) – reuns Dec 12 '20 at 08:11

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It is not true in general, try with $h(n)=n^2$ (which gives $R=\infty$), $h(n) = n^{-1/2}$ (which gives $R=0$)

and $\sum_n h(n)n^{-s} =\zeta(s)\zeta(s+i)$ which gives $R=\zeta(1+i)$ (yes $\prod_p \frac1{1-p^{-s}}$ converges for $\Re(s)=1,s\ne 1$ by the PNT because $\sum_p p^{-s}$ looks like $\sum_n \frac{n^{-s}}{\log n}$ and $\sum_{n> x} \frac{n^{-s}}{\log n}$ looks like $\frac{x^{1-s}}{(1-s)\log x}$). If we had $\sum_{n\le x}h(n) = Rx+ o(x)$ then $\sum_n (h(n)-1)n^{-s}$ would be $o(1/\Re(s-1))$ for $\Re(s)>1$ which is absurd. In this example $\sum_{n\le x} h(n)= \zeta(s+i) x+\frac{x^{1+i}}{1+i}+o(x)$.

The conditions are those of the Tauberian theorems proving the PNT (often satisfied for the functions appearing naturally in analytic number theory).

Under much stronger assumptions there is a one line proof, see How to determine the residue of an (arithmetic) Dirichlet series. For $a> -1$ the asymptotic for $\sum_{n\le x} h(n)$ gives the asymptotic for $\sum_{n\le x} h(n) n^a$ by partial summation.

reuns
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