I saw this problem on my exams and I just literally wrote down the formula for derangements and derived it but I am not sure if it is the case. This was the problem:
Problem: Let there be $n$ number of people and each one of them buys a gift and places them in a bag. Then each member chooses a gift out of the bag without seeing what they choose. What is the probability that none of the $n$ people chooses their own gift?
I was just wondering isnt this just a restatement of the derangement problem? Where the derangement formula is given by:
$$!n=n!\sum_{i=0}^n\frac{(-1)^i}{i!}$$