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Let $\psi(x)$ be the digamma function. Is the function which takes $\psi(x)-\log x$ for $x>0$ strictly increasing, and how could one show this if it is the case (link etc.)?

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1 Answers1

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Are you allowed to use $\psi(z) = -\gamma + \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{n + 1} - \frac{1}{n + z}\right)$ ? If so $$\psi'(x)-\frac1x = \sum_{n\ge 0} \frac1{(x+n)^2}-\int_{x+n}^{x+n+1} \frac1{t^2}dt$$

reuns
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  • Yes, and thanks a lot for the answer and the editting :) Im not quite sure how to obtain the right hand side of $$\psi'(x)-\frac1x = \sum_{n\ge 0} \frac1{(x+n)^2}-\int_{x+n}^{x+n+1} \frac1{t^2}dt$$ can you maybe elaborate on that? – StackExchangeMMH Oct 24 '20 at 10:05
  • What do you get when differientating $\psi(x)-\log x$ – reuns Oct 24 '20 at 10:48
  • Okay sry for not writting what I had tried. Okay, so i guess the derivative of $\psi(x)-\log(x)$ is equal to $\psi'(x)-\frac{1}{x}$ which is the left hand side. Since $\psi(x)=-\gamma+\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+x}$ and the sum $\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+x)^2}$ is uniformly convergend for $x>0$ i also guess we also know that $\psi'(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(n+x)^2}$. But then I guess I end up with $-\int_{x+n}^{x+n+1} \frac{1}{t^2}dt$ which i get to be $\frac{1}{(x+n)(x+n+1)}$ should be equal to $1/x$? so i must have made a mistake somewhere. – StackExchangeMMH Oct 24 '20 at 12:35
  • $\sum_{n\ge 0}\int_{x+n}^{x+n+1} \frac1{t^2}dt = \int_x^\infty \frac1{t^2}dt$ @Mathisfun – reuns Oct 24 '20 at 12:40
  • Arhhh so the integral was inside the summation, thanks alot reuns :) – StackExchangeMMH Oct 24 '20 at 13:20