For any $\alpha \in \mathbb{C}$, by studying the $n$-th coefficient (with respect to the variable $z$) of the power series of the function
$$ \frac{1}{(1-z)^{\alpha+1}}\,\log\left(\frac{1}{1-z}\right) $$
in two different ways, we can obtain the identity
$$ \forall n \geqslant 0, \, \forall\alpha \in \mathbb{C}, \;\; \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k} \, \binom{n-k+\alpha}{n-k} \; = \; \binom{n+\alpha}{n}\,\sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k+\alpha}.$$
I would like to know if there exists a "direct" proof of this equality, that is, for example, by replacing the binomial coefficients of one of the two members with another expression or something else. Thank you in advance !