1

If $f(z) = (g(z),h(z))$ is continuous then $g$ and $h$ are as well.

The converse is easy for me to prove, but I'm not seeing how to prove it using the terminology of open sets and not metric spaces.

Arturo Magidin
  • 398,050

2 Answers2

3

So, $g\colon X\to Y$ and $h\colon X\to Z$ are maps, and you let $f\colon X\to Y\times Z$, endowing $Y\times Z$ with the product topology. You know $f$ is continuous, and you want to show that $g$ and $h$ are continuous.

The simplest way does not use open sets at all: it just notes that the projections $\pi_Y\colon Y\times Z\to Y$ and $\pi_Z\colon Y\times Z\to Z$ are continuous, and composition of continuous functions is continuous. What is $\pi_Y\circ f$ and what is $\pi_Z\circ g$?

If you absolutely, definitely, positively must use open sets, note that if $A\subseteq Y$ and $B\subseteq Z$, then \begin{align*} x\in f^{-1}(A\times B) &\Longleftrightarrow g(x)\in A\text{ and }h(x)\in B\\ &\Longleftrightarrow x\in g^{-1}(A)\text{ and }x\in h^{-1}(B)\\ &\Longleftrightarrow x\in g^{-1}(A)\cap h^{-1}(B). \end{align*} So, let $\mathcal{U}\subset Y$ be an open subset of $Y$. We know that $\mathcal{U}\times Z$ is open, sos= $f^{-1}(\mathcal{U}\times Z)$ is open. What is it?

And let $\mathcal{O}\subseteq Z$ be an open subset of $Z$; then $Y\times\mathcal{O}$ is open, so $f^{-1}(Y\times\mathcal{O})$ is open. What is it?

Arturo Magidin
  • 398,050
2

Compose $f$ with a projection. (First prove that a projection is continuous.)

lhf
  • 216,483