For me a rational map $X \to Y$ is a morphism defined on a dense open set of $X$, with the equivalence relation that $f: U \to Y \ \ \sim \ \ g: V \to Y$ if there is a dense open set $Z \subset U \cap V$ such that $f|_Z = g|_Z$, and $X$ and $Y$ are birational if there are dominant rational maps $f: X \to Y$ and $g: Y \to X$ such that $f \circ g$ and $g \circ f$ are both identity (up to the previous equivalence relation). This is the definitions given in section 6.5 of Vakil.
I found an answer to my question here, but I don't see how the definition they used is the same as mine. i.e., why a rational map $X \to Y \subset \mathbb{P}_k^N$, where $X$ and $Y$ are smooth projective curves, can be written as $x \mapsto [f_1(x):...:f_N(x)]$ where $f_i \in k(x)$.
If anyone can give me a different proof of the question, that would be nice too.
Thanks!
Then a rational map $U \subset X \to \mathbb{P}^N$ will be of the form $x \mapsto [f_0(x):\ldots :f_N(x)]$ with $f_j \in k(x_0,\ldots,x_N)$
– reuns Dec 26 '17 at 06:29