$$ y'' + \lambda y = 0 , ~~0 < x<1$$ $$ y'(0) = 0, y'(1) - y(1) = 0.$$
I have shown that there are no eigenvalues corresponding to $\lambda=0$.
For $\lambda < 0$, I let $\lambda = - k^2, k^2>0.$
Then solving the ODE gives $$ y = A\cosh(kx)+B\sinh(kx) $$ and applying Boundary conditions gives $B=0$ and $\tanh(k)=\frac{1}{k}$.
Hence there is one solution for $k^2 > 0$ where $\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda_0}}=\tanh(\sqrt{\lambda_0})$.
Then for $\lambda > 0$ I get
$$ -\frac{1}{\lambda_n} = tan(\sqrt{\lambda_n})$$
Is what I have correct? Because I want to give a closed form solution for $\lambda$ to help solve a PDE and I am not sure how to derive one.