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Let $\mathbb D$ be the unit disk and let $a\in \mathbb D$. Find a holomorphic map $f: \mathbb D \rightarrow \mathbb D$ that interchanges $0$ and $a$.

Attempt:

Define $f: \mathbb D \rightarrow \mathbb D$ as $f(z)= \frac{a-z}{1-\overline a z}$

will take $0 \to a \;\& \;a\to 0$.

It will be holomorphic as it's a linear fractional transformation.

To show $f: \mathbb D \rightarrow \mathbb D$, we need to show $\frac{a-z}{1-\overline a z} \in \mathbb D$.

How to do that ?

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  • Take the norm of that expression, and prove (using some sort of inequalities) that it's no more than 1. – Nick Mar 28 '16 at 20:05
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    See for example http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1227914/proving-that-phi-az-z-a-1-overlineaz-maps-b0-1-onto-itself. – Martin R Mar 28 '16 at 20:42

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