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Consider the random variable $X\sim B(n,p)$ and also $Y\sim B(n-X,q)$, how can we express $Y$?

we know that for the case $Y\sim B(X,q)$, $Y$ is a simple binomial variable with distribution $Y\sim B(n,p\cdot q)$. how about the first case ($Y\sim B(n-X,q)$).

To give a better insight, we can consider throwing $n$ balls to the basket with success probability equal to $p$, then throwing the balls that didn't hit the basket again but with success probability equal to $q$.

I want to thank you in advance for considering the Q :)

  • can anybody help me? plz :) – Farhad 87 Aug 04 '15 at 15:29
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    Dears for this question I already found the answer: first we should define the X' as X'~B(n,1-p) then redefine the Y as Y~B(X',q), then using the mentioned case in the question we can easily find the Y which is: Y~B(n,q*(1-p)) – Farhad 87 Aug 14 '15 at 11:12

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