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I've been casually following the NFL player protests against injustice in modern America. Often the controversy is centered around players like Colin Kaepernick, whose career seems to be over even though he was a [valuable] franchise player and whose [performance] stats seemed to be increasing each season.

The press seems to regularly report in articles like Colin Kaepernick Is Not Going Away:

[Dallas Cowboys owner Jerry Jones] Jones is the most outspoken owner to oppose the protests, but he speaks for more than a few of his colleagues. He has also donated to President Trump, who has frequently attacked the owners for not firing players who protest and who publicly praised Jones for his hard-line stance.

How can the president actively attack a person who is peaceably protesting and exercising their right to free speech; and encouraging (coercing?) others into abridging those rights?

I understand folks like Kaepernick have no protections from corporate America; but the rights and protections from government are guaranteed in the Constitution.


A related article that some may want to read is Kaepernick vs. the N.F.L.: A Primer on His Collusion Case. The article examines Kaepernick case against the NFL and the league "black-listing" him, and not the [seeming] transgressions of the government against him.

Here is a related Trump media event as reported CNN: Trump credits his Twitter wrath for Kaepernick's unemployment.

feetwet
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jww
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    The President has the same freedom of speech as the rest of America, it doesn't violate constitutional rights to "attack" a person for peaceful protest. Just like your "Uncle Bob" yelling at and berating players/coaches/owners doesn't violate constitutional rights. If the president were to make an order saying "any player who kneels for the national anthem shall be jailed", that would be a rights violation. – Ron Beyer Sep 19 '18 at 21:51
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    Thanks @Ron. Correct me if I am wrong, but Trump is is never "off the clock", he is the number one spokesperson of the US government, when he speaks he sets policies, and he has unconditional immunity when he is in office. You seem to be arguing he can use his position as both a sword and a shield. Are presidents protected that way? – jww Sep 19 '18 at 22:04
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    "when he speaks he sets policies" No, absolutely not. He does not set domestic policy by speaking but he may be influencing public opinion just because of being in a position of power... "and he has unconditional immunity when he is in office" Again, absolutely not. The president is (nearly) just as subject to civil/criminal penalties as the rest of us, and there are procedures for in place to enforce those against the president. Presidents are not given "unconditional immunity", this is called impeachment and is the start to a criminal or civil trial of a sitting president. – Ron Beyer Sep 19 '18 at 22:15
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    Thanks @Ron. Sorry for the late reply. I'm still having a hard time reconciling things. I'm a computer security architect by trade. If I go into the office I can't harass a female employee on break and claim it was "Weekend Jeff" doing it. I can't go offsite, teach a class, and harass a female [adult] student after class at a social event and claim it was "Weekend Jeff" doing it. In both cases it is me and I represent the company. I don't understand how the disconnect occurs for Trump's. He is the head of the country and executive branch. His actions speak for government; can't be disgorged. – jww Sep 20 '18 at 00:34
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    The President is a separate entity from the United States Government, in your examples you can personally be held liable for your actions, but the company cannot (unless they actively supported or failed to act on that information). The difference is that harassment is a crime, speaking out about topics is a right. You are separate from your employer the same way Trump is separate from the Office of the President, he holds that office, not is that office. – Ron Beyer Sep 20 '18 at 00:45
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    @jww There's also a degree of separation. In your analogy, Trump isn't you, and isn't harassing a female employee. Trump is the guy talking to you about how the female employee is really hot and good in bed and responded positively to direct attention. If you then take that information and go harass the female employee, that other guy isn't on the hook for your actions as an adult with the full mental faculties to make a choice. Working back from the analogy, you directly affecting the female employee based on what the other guy (Trump) said makes you closer to the NFL team owners. – Philbo Sep 20 '18 at 08:26
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    It's different because Colin was an employee of the NFL. If the boss doesn't like what you're doing, well... You're Fired. – Carl Sep 20 '18 at 16:12
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    @jww "I can't go offsite, teach a class, and harass a female [adult] student after class at a social event and claim it was "Weekend Jeff" doing it." - Depending upon who your employer is and what precisely you mean by the words "can't" and "harass", this may not be true. In https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/district-courts/FSupp/865/1430/1505982/, the court found that the fire department was forbidden by the First Amendment from preventing male firefighters from reading Playboy while resting in communal areas of the fire station, even if doing so offended their female colleagues. – Mark Amery Sep 20 '18 at 16:24
  • @jww There are likely a large number of variables that would go into such a First Amendment analysis, and I don't claim to know them all, and of course a private employer is not barred by the First Amendment from punishing employees for off-duty speech if they want to. But the idea that the US government is free to regulate speech by its employees is not straightforwardly true; rather, it's a complicated balancing test that weighs government interests against the employee's individual rights, that probably only lawyers have a good understanding of. – Mark Amery Sep 20 '18 at 16:29
  • @RonBeyer Impeachment is a long and complicated procedure though, a method of last resort. So a president can get away with a large amount of small infractions as long as nobody in a position of starting the process says "enough is enough". – Mast Sep 20 '18 at 17:50
  • @Ron Beyer : You seem to have missed the subtler point. The apparent problematic of the issue is not merely the President expressing an opinion, but that it seems to be he is trying to goad the owners (by attacking them) to effectively frustrate Kaepernick's protesting itself, as opposed to merely disagreeing with his message. And that looks kind of like a First Amendment problem against Kapernick's right to speech itself. – The_Sympathizer Sep 21 '18 at 15:12
  • Perhaps it is still "okay", but it's going to require a slightly subtler argument to explain why. – The_Sympathizer Sep 21 '18 at 15:21
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    Some food for thought: if a President said that the NFL shouldn't allow white players to come out on the field wearing a Ku Klux Klan symbol and supported team owners that enforced such a rule, would that statement be an infringement of the player's rights? Whenever you're raising a question about rights, you must consider how it would affect both ideas with which you vehemently disagree and with which you agree wholeheartedly. – jpmc26 Sep 21 '18 at 16:20
  • I will add that presidents using their podiums to attack protesters in extremely rare and goes against norms. But, he has a way of ripping up norms and tossing them out. – kleineg Sep 21 '18 at 20:38
  • @MarkAmery a private employer would be barred from firing an employee because of off-duty speech if the firing constituted illegal discrimination (for example firing someone because they talk about their religion a lot when they're not at work). – phoog Sep 23 '18 at 02:43

3 Answers3

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The comments have already pointed out that the President of the United States is still a citizen, and all of the rights of a citizen are still protected for them. Additionally, the Administration is allowed to take policy positions which are antagonistic to a person or group's cause, even if that group is practicing their rights to express their views legally. To give a different example, the President and his administration may denounce the position of a group of Neo-Nazis marching legally. So, any argument that the President is acting in an official capacity while making antagonistic comments also probably fails, as the Administration is allowed to take a position on any issue they deem worth taking a stand on.

As noted in another answer and in comments, the applicable laws appear to be 18 U.S. Code § 227, which provides for punishment of government officials who attempt to influence employment decisions through official acts for political purposes, and 42 U.S. Code § 1983, which provides for civil action when a person deprives, or causes the deprivation of, another person's rights under color of law.

18 U.S. Code § 227 likely does not apply for two reasons

  1. The President may show that his conduct was not purely for political purpose
  2. The official statements made do not qualify as official acts per McDonnell v. United States, as they are not

    a decision or action on a "question, matter, cause, suit, proceeding or controversy"; that question or matter must involve a formal exercise of governmental power, and must also be something specific and focused that is "pending" or "may by law be brought" before a public official

42 U.S. Code § 1983 might apply if the official statements were found to be acting under color of law, but I think the statements made so far will fail to meet the qualifications for this statute. Blair v. Bethel School District gives three qualifications for conduct that would allow recovery under this statute:

(1) he engaged in constitutionally protected activity;
(2) as a result, he was subjected to adverse action by the defendant that would chill a person of ordinary firmness from continuing to engage in the protected activity; and
(3) there was a substantial causal relationship between the constitutionally protected activity and the adverse action.

The President's and Administration's official speech appears to fail the second criteria. First, it is questionable whether it qualifies as an "Adverse Action" - in Blair, as well as Hartman v. Moore and Gibson v. United States, the adverse action against the Plaintiff caused actual damage or indignity. However, even if we assume the official speech qualifies as an adverse action for the purposes of the statute, it still appears to be permissible for effectively the same reasons as the first and third arguments presented in the decision:

First, the adverse action Blair complains of was a rather minor indignity, and de minimis deprivations of benefits and privileges on account of one's speech do not give rise to a First Amendment claim.

The actual effect of the Administration's speech has a minimal direct effect on the players it speaks against. The decision further states:

The most familiar adverse actions are “exercise[s] of governmental power” that are “regulatory, proscriptive, or compulsory in nature” and have the effect of punishing someone for his or her speech

Official speech by the Administration is not "regulatory, proscriptive, or compulsory in nature." While this is not a complete definition for "adverse action," it gives a sense of severity, which official speech does not appear to meet.

Additionally, the President's right to speech, and the Administration's authority and need to make official speech as directed by the President is a competing interest in this case, as was the interest of the Board in Blair:

Third, it is significant that Blair isn't the only party in this case whose interests implicate First Amendment concerns. To the contrary, we assume all of the Board members have a protected interest in speaking out and voting their conscience...

The decision does note that:

The point isn't that the vote against Blair was protected speech simply because it was expressive. Almost all retaliatory actions can be said to be expressive, including those that are manifestly unconstitutional. But, while Blair certainly had a First Amendment right to criticize Seigel and vote against his retention as superintendent, his fellow Board members had the corresponding right to replace Blair with someone who, in their view, represented the majority view of the Board.

Similarly, it's probable that a court would find that the President's right to speech and their Administration's corresponding authority to speech against the players' right to protest is equally weighted or even weightier, such that stifling the official speech is as bad or worse than the alleged chilling effect of the speech.

Some examples of things that clearly would fall afoul of 42 U.S. Code § 1983 would be the President or the Administration misappropriating funds to use to pay NFL teams not to hire players who kneel during the national anthem, or signing an Executive Order preventing players who kneel during the national anthem from playing - in both cases, they are taking actions which fall outside the powers of their office, which would qualify as acts made under color of law and clearly chill the players' First Amendment rights.

IllusiveBrian
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    More succinctly, the President's actions so far are just talk. – ohwilleke Sep 19 '18 at 22:32
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    "[T]he Administration is allowed to take policy positions which are antagonistic to a person or group practicing their rights legally" Is that really true? Doesn't, for example, Blair v. Bethel School District argue otherwise? "The First Amendment forbids government officials from retaliating against individuals for speaking out." The administration has already conceded that the President's Twitter posts are official actions. If officials can take official actions that retaliate for protected speech acts, what's left of the first amendment? – David Schwartz Sep 20 '18 at 00:11
  • @DavidSchwartz Maybe antagonistic isn't the right word, I mean that they are allowed to take a position that a particular person or group's speech is wrong. I'll edit to clarify. – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 00:39
  • Something else I want to say, but I'm not 100% sure on, is that the Administration doesn't have any statutory restrictions on speech. It certainly has all the rights of any citizen or organization, but I don't know if it can also say things that would run afoul of speech-restrictive laws such as slander without legal repercussion (obviously impeachment is always a threat). – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 00:47
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    @IllusiveBrian They're allowed to take a position, yes, but not to harass and pressure with official actions to the point that it would chill people from engaging in speech activities protected by the first amendment. See, for example, Salamaca v. Musso. – David Schwartz Sep 20 '18 at 02:12
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    @DavidSchwartz I think that is going further than the question is asking and my answer is suggesting. I agree that if the Administration, either through the actions of the President or otherwise, was using their official powers to chill Mr. Kaepernick's speech, it may be in violation of his rights and could be stopped by the courts. However, I am not aware of any precedent that a government's protected speech can be stifled by a court in order to prevent the chilling of another entity's protected speech - if you have one, I'd be happy to read it and change my answer accordingly. – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 02:39
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    @DavidSchwartz I re-read your other comment and I do see where your argument is coming from, but if stating opposition to a cause or action were prohibited to the government, the government would basically have no ability publish policy at all - for every policy, there is at least one person opposed to it. There would definitely be an issue if the government used its funds to induce the NFL to blacklist Mr. Kaepernick, or sent agents to harass him, but so far their opposition has just been mean tweets and a particularly awkward Superbowl ceremony. – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 02:46
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    This is a good answer, you might want to add an example of how the president would actually be violating their rights as that contrast would be good addition and help clarify things. – enderland Sep 20 '18 at 14:31
  • @IllusiveBrian You're moving the goalposts from whether the statements violate rights to whether the specific remedy of restraining the speech is available. That's a completely different question from the one asked. As for whether it's "just mean tweets", we have a specific legal test that applies, that I cited to you. If it's retaliation for protected speech that would tend to chill that speech, even in a person of ordinary firmness. Are you saying it's not retaliation for protected speech? Wouldn't tend to chill that speech? Or that I have the wrong standard? Or what? – David Schwartz Sep 20 '18 at 17:27
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    @IllusiveBrian The conduct in the case I cited to you, Salamaca v. Musso, was quite similar to the public extended string of harassing statements that Trump has created in his official statements on Twitter. If a government official can, through repeated official actions, harm the business of people who speak out politically against him and his policies (and thereby chill his political opposition because they fear losing their jobs), what's left of the first amendment? – David Schwartz Sep 20 '18 at 17:29
  • @DavidSchwartz I think the confusion comes from conflating "official statements" and "official acts" - see McDonnell now cited in the answer. Salamaca v. Musso is materially different as the City is alleged to have used their authority inappropriately to violate the Plaintiff's rights, e.g. via blocking their parking lot with police cars acting under color of law. In the question's case we are only talking about speech made in an official capacity, not official actions taken against Mr. Kaepernick. – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 23:41
  • @DavidSchwartz The tests cited in Bethel would rely on official statements from the Administration being applicable "Adverse Actions" - in Gibson v. United States and Hartman v Moore, both cited in the decision, the adverse actions were prosecution for a crime. In Bethel, the action of removing the Vice President was considered a "de minimis deprivation," which does not qualify for a First Amendment claim per the decision. If the speech is considered an "Adverse Action," it is almost certainly a "de minimis" one. – IllusiveBrian Sep 20 '18 at 23:58
  • @IllusiveBrian : What if though he hypothetically met personally with the owners of the teams to persuade them to fire Kaepernick or otherwise deprive him of a platform? Would that count as a misuse of official power? How much of this could a president do in theory to muzzle opponents before it becomes an actionable problem? – The_Sympathizer Sep 21 '18 at 15:23
  • @IllusiveBrian Suppose you're a stockbroker and you speak out against Trump and then an SEC official calls your employer and cautions them that you seem "unpatriotic and unstable" and perhaps they'll lose business so long as they have such unstable stockbrokers in their employ. The question is where is the line and were are Trump's actions relative to that line. (Personally, I do think they still fall short of the line, but not by very much. The President shouldn't be trying to get people fired for their political opinions and statements.) – David Schwartz Sep 21 '18 at 17:22
  • @The_Sympathizer Depends on the form of persuasion. If he just said "I think you should fire him," that's protected speech. If he said "If you fire him I'll get funding for sports grants for your school outreach programs," that's probably a violation of 18 U.S. Code § 227. If he said "If you fire him I'll give you a million dollars from my own funds," I am unsure where that would fall. – IllusiveBrian Sep 21 '18 at 22:07
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    @DavidSchwartz That would probably fall afoul of ethics laws if the SEC official was using their official position to lend credence to their accusation without authorization, but not 18 U.S. Code § 227 specifically, unless the "lose business" part was actually a veiled threat of official action. I think as long as this stays in the realm of speech, it is a political issue and not a legal one - Congress can and should impeach if they deem this a misuse of office. I don't know if I could buy enough popcorn if the President then sued the US under 42 U.S. Code § 1983 for the impeachment. – IllusiveBrian Sep 21 '18 at 22:12
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Trump, like anybody else, is allowed to express his opinions. Many presidents exhibit some restraint in doing so since even without taking recourse to the powers granted by their office (which in this case would run contrary to the First Amendment) their word tends to carry disproportional weight.

A famous historical quote is "Will no one rid me of this meddlesome priest?" attributed to Henry II of England leading to the murder of Thomas Becket, the Archbishop of Canterbury. Henry II ultimately had to do public penance for his utterance.

Neither restraint nor penance are really major parts of Trump's political toolbox nor were they part of his election platform. His behavior here may be considered inappropriate or not befitting for his position but it does not constitute a First Amendment issue as long as he does not engage any powers granted to him by his office.

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Both Trump and Kaepernick have free speech rights involved, so it isn't a free speech issue so long as it sticks to two people yelling at each other.

The applicable statute is 18 US Code 227. Is Trump a 'covered person' under this statute? Yes. Was he trying to influence an employment decision or practice by a private entity? Absolutely. But is it 'solely on the basis of political affiliation'? Many would argue no. Is politics involved? Certainly. But it is by no means the sole reason. Misguided nationalism, mild racism, a desire that entertainers not use their platform to effect social change, giving business advice...there are plenty of reasons Trump could cite to invalidate this portion of the statute, and it would be very difficult, if not impossible, to refute.

Carduus
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    Your analysis overlooks the acts that are actually forbidden by the statute. The intent to influence an employment decision is only relevant if either (a)(1) or (a)(2) is present. What "official act" did Trump "take or withhold" in an attempt to influence the NFL's hiring practices? I don't think saying "these guys ought to be fired" is an official act. – phoog Sep 20 '18 at 16:45
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    @DavidSchwartz I'm not convinced that an official statement is an official act. The definition at section 201, which admittedly does not apply here directly, suggests that an act must be more than a statement. – phoog Sep 20 '18 at 19:23
  • "These guys ought to be fired" is a statement. Making a statement is an act. "I order you to fire these guys" is also an act. Can you not see the difference between one "official act" and the other? – Beanluc Sep 20 '18 at 20:19
  • "Making a statement is an act" is begging the question. – Sneftel Sep 21 '18 at 10:47
  • @Beanluc - Tom Metzger made a lot of statements to others, too. The difference seems to be Metzger promoted physical harm on opposition; while President promotes loss of employment to silence government's opposition. Not to mention President is attempting to force someone into squalor or poverty. (I realize I just moved the proverbial goal posts). – jww Sep 21 '18 at 16:36