My friend believes that the Amanda Knox case, for instance, is an American crime because she herself was an American. I believe what constitutes an American crime is a crime committed on US soil where as the criminal liability falls on US jurisdiction. What do you guys think?
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1There is no such thing as "an American crime". Perhaps you are interested in knowing if there exists any nation which asserts jurisdiction over acts by its citizens performed on foreign soil: that would be a question of legal fact, not personal opinion. – user6726 Oct 03 '17 at 15:49
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What you probably mean is not "an American crime", but "a crime that would be prosecuted by a US prosecutor" (if the culprit is caught, enough evidence, etc. etc. )
Looking for where the crime has happened is a good start. Some countries look for "where the crime has had an effect", for example if a criminal on the US side of the border shoots a person on the Canadian side, where this distinction might make a difference. Or gambling websites that are run outside the USA but used by people within the USA.
But there is a large number of crimes outside the USA that the USA will prosecute; other countries have similar not identical rules. Examples are bribery by US companies outside the USA, certain sexual crimes. Usually covered are crimes that a nation just doesn't want its citizens to commit, even outside its own borders, to avoid damage to the countries reputation.
The Amanda Knox case is clearly Italian business. Well, according to US law, it's not the business of the USA, and according to Italian law, it's Italy's business. No special rules for an ordinary murder case.
gnasher729
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