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Are there any sources or reports which explain how close the country was to collapsing under the Nazi assault? By 'collapse' I mean 'completely lacking either the willpower (as seen by France in 1940 after the fall of Paris and the collapse of the line on the Somme) or ability (as seen by Poland as they ran out of territory to defend) such that they would not be able to amount any effective defense and need to sue for peace as soon as possible'?

Tea Drinker
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Evil Washing Machine
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    It is very difficult to speculate about December '41, but I remember reading a comment that by late spring '45 the Soviets had run out of men, and could not have maintained the same intensity of fighting if the war had stretched into '46. – Pieter Geerkens Aug 06 '13 at 02:54
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    Everyone was running out of men in 1945, it's what happens when you're fighting for 4+ years. The 'same intensity' would not have been needed since the Germans would have been that much closer to defeat. – Kunikov Aug 06 '13 at 03:44
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    How do you measure "closeness"? On what scale? – Lennart Regebro Aug 06 '13 at 08:14
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  • request for reference (2) subjective
  • – MCW Aug 06 '13 at 10:41
  • @FelixGoldberg: I provided that definition. – Tom Au Aug 06 '13 at 13:09
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    @PieterGeerkens Hitler and Hitler loyalists had the Russians "running out of men" and on the verge of collapse for most of the period 1941 to 1944 – Tea Drinker Aug 06 '13 at 13:32
  • @MarkC.Wallace I have clarified my question, is it better now? – Evil Washing Machine Aug 06 '13 at 15:13
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    @TeaDrinker: Speculation by an enemy is always susceptible to optimism. The report I read was compiled in the early or mid 90's by an historian with access to declassified Soviet documents. Unfortunately I didn't note the source beyond that it appeared credible, which leaves it in the anecdotal zone. – Pieter Geerkens Aug 09 '13 at 02:18