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How did the new state of Israel already have an army strong enough to secure a military victory against multiple neighboring armies in 1948?

According to a inadequately cited Wikipedia article, we read that Israel had armament support from a well-trained populace, funds from supporters in the US, support from Stalin, and a pre-war campaign of purchasing WWII weapons stockpiles.

Every Jewish man and woman in the country had to receive military training. Thanks to funds raised by Golda Meir from sympathisers in the United States, and Stalin's decision to support the Zionist cause, the Jewish representatives of Palestine were able to sign very important armament contracts in the East. Other Haganah agents recuperated stockpiles from the Second World War, which helped improve the army's equipment and logistics. Operation Balak allowed arms and other equipment to be transported for the first time by the end of March. Wikipedia

Military support also came from Czechoslovakia: source.

The US had placed an arms embargo on all parties in the region the preceding year, so that wasn't an important source of support (at least in the immediate run-up to war): source.

This article (source) discusses the capacities of the Jewish populations to procure weapons contrasted with more limited capacity for Arabs, in the face of the UN arms embargo:

The cessation of supplies was intended to curtail the conflict in Palestine, however the embargo’s severe flaws rapidly became clear to observers. The CIA noted in August 1948 that the Israelis possessed local arms manufacturing facilities and much more money to covertly acquire weapons from Eastern Europe. The Arab states and the Palestinian Arabs had no manufacturing capabilities, were completely dependant on British arms, and lacked financial resources to purchase arms from non-British sources.

This seems like a number of individually important factors, but without more expertise I'm concerned I might be missing important facts or some big-picture element. Is there more here to why Israel was able to win the 1948 war, despite being a new state and facing multiple enemies advancing on multiple fronts?

Spencer
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Dr. Beeblebrox
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    Note that not only Israel was a "new state", but its enemies were also "new". Of course, the people lived there before, but the countries themselves became independent only very recently. – vsz Nov 11 '21 at 05:25
  • Don't forget Israel was fighting to live and knew they'd suffer again another genocide, whereas their aggressors were doing a lot of grandstanding. Most of Arab states only sent a fraction of their military. – Issel Nov 12 '21 at 08:01

4 Answers4

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Overview

This has been much discussed over the decades since the war and there are various views on this. Even if historical bias could be left aside, we are still left with the problem of measuring or quantifying such factors as experience, determination, planning, weaponry, training and unity of purpose against each other. For example, at what point do determination and / or unity of purpose outweigh better or more weapons and / or soldiers?

However, one can summarize the factors raised, and most of these ultimately favoured the Israelis. How much weight can be given to each is never likely to be agreed upon, but we can at least reasonably conclude that no single factor accounted for the Arab failure in the war; rather, it was a combination of factors, with lack of unity and failure to commit more of their forces perhaps being the most important reasons.


Details

First, recent historians have challenged the idea the conflict was a case of 'David vs. Goliath':

… the myth of the emerging State of Israel as David facing the Arab Goliath in the 1948 war … Despite seemingly overwhelming demographic advantages, the Arab states were not prepared for conflict. Jewish forces consistently outnumbered Arab armies – often by a factor of two-to-one – enjoyed better access to arms, maintained shorter supply-lines, and were far more experienced than their opponents having fought against and alongside British forces under the Mandate and during World War II, respectively.

The Arab states, in contrast, were fighting their first-ever war; the Palestinians, for their part, were almost totally disorganized. Thus, from a purely military standpoint, a Jewish/Israeli victory was all-but-assured.

Source: Benny Morris, cited in 'Review: 1948: A History of the First Arab-Israeli War' by Paul Chamberlain.

Despite the huge population disparity, Israeli mobilization was much higher and

None of the Arab states were willing to commit their resources fully to the destruction of Israel, and ultimately no more than 150,000 soldiers, the majority of whom were Israeli, entered the war despite the involvement of five armies.

Had Arab states committed more forces against Israel's long border, they may well have stretched Israeli resources beyond breaking point. Even so, the Israelis were hard pushed during the first phase, yet managed to hold their own:

All in all, the combined and simultaneous Arab invasion turned out to be less well-coordinated, less determined, and less effective than Israel’s leaders had feared. Success in withstanding the Arab invasion greatly enhanced Israel’s self-confidence.

British-Israeli historian Avi Shlaim observes that "the first truce was a turning-point in the history of the war":

Though they [the Israelis] had succeeded in halting the Arab invasion, their fighting forces were stretched to the limit and badly needed a respite to rest, reorganize, and train new recruits. On the Israeli side, the four weeks’ truce was also used to bring in large shipments of arms from abroad in contravention of the UN embargo – tanks, armoured cars, artillery, and aircraft. On the Arab side, the truce was largely wasted. No serious preparations were made by any of the Arab countries to reorganize and re-equip their armies so that they would be better placed in the event of hostilities being resumed. The UN arms embargo applied in theory to all the combatants but in practice it hurt the Arabs and helped Israel because the Western powers observed it whereas the Soviet bloc did not.[31] … It witnessed a decisive shift in the balance of forces in favour of Israel.

The arms that Israel obtained (but which the Arab states largely couldn't) came from the Eastern Bloc, principally Czechoslovakia with whom the Israelis had signed contracts despite the arms embargo. This violated the UN arms embargo (actively supported by the US and the UK – see this History SE post), imposed in an attempt to de-escalate conflict in the Middle East. This violation was raised in the UK parliament where the use of Skoda rifles and Yak fighters is mentioned (see this Hansard entry for more on the UK government's response to the violation of the embargo). Thus, although the Arab states could have made better use of the truce in terms of more coordinated planning and preparation, Shlaim's use of the word 'wasted' is perhaps a little harsh in view of the greater difficulty the Arab states had in obtaining extra supplies. As Amitzur Ilan states in The Origin of the Arab-Israeli Arms Race: Arms, Embargo, Military Power and Decision in the 1948 Palestine War,

… although the Arab armies started the war better equipped than the Israeli army, their organization was from the start badly lacking and their stores of ammunition and spare parts were nearly empty. Thereafter, due to embargo restrictions, their former sources of supply and military know-how were cut off … In contrast, the Israeli forces, which were also badly hit by the embargo, nevertheless managed to import a considerable number of weapons and supplies and to produce some at home as well, and to attain considerable foreign military expertise.

Although the Soviet Union itself did not respond to Israeli requests for arms, it did not stop states in the Eastern bloc from assisting Israel. Principally, this meant Czechoslovakia (with the co-operation of Hungary and Yugoslavia in transporting the weapons). Arms were supplied to both sides, but it was the Israelis who got the bulk of them. The motive for breaking the embargo appears to have been primarily Czech financial need:

...it was a policy motivated by strong mutual interest which was that the Yishuv desperately needed arms which the Czechs were keen to export and the Czechs desperately needed dollars which the Yishuv could raise in the USA. True, the first contact between the Yishuv and the Czech Government began when there were a number of pro-Zionists in that government. But that same government also offered military assistance to Syria and Egypt and the military assistance to Israel continued long after the pro-Zionists were no longer in government. The fact that in 1948 Israel received 85% of the Czech foreign military aid and the Arabs only the remainder, does not indicate any degree of preference but who was the better customer. A 'reliable source' in the Czech Foreign Office, which used to pass information to the British Military Attache in Prague, said categorically that the Czech interest in exporting arms 'is just Dollars' and that Moscow understood the Prague position.

Source: Amitzur Ilan

Shlaim also points to the lack of unity among the Arab states, citing several examples at various stages of the war in his article Israel and the Arab Coalition in 1948. For example, when Israel attacked Egypt on October 15, Transjordan remained neutral while the Arab legion failed to assist the Egyptian forces trapped in Faluja (Gaza). Then, when the Israelis attacked for the second time at the end of October,

Conflict between the Arab states and lack of coordination between their armies in Palestine gave Israel the freedom to choose the time and place of the second offensive. Egypt appealed to her Arab allies for help but its appeals fell on deaf ears. Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and the Yemen all promised assistance but failed to honour their promises. The Iraqis shelled a few Israeli villages near their front line as a token of solidarity with their embattled ally. Without exception the Arab states were either afraid to intervene or did not wish to intervene.

The Egyptians should not have been surprised at this lack of support: back in May, an Arab Legion, despite being stationed nearby, failed to assist the Egyptian advance towards Jerusalem. This view on Arab disunity is supported by the Syrian historian Sami Moubayed:

The rivalries were a major problem because they resulted in poor command, lack of transparency, and ultimately, failure, …

and by Professor Arthur Goldschmidt Jr who argues that the rivalries changed the course of the war:

Notably the rivalry between the Jordanians, with their British-officered Arab Legion and King Abdullah’s ambitions for a Greater Syria, and the Egyptians, with King Farouk’s ambition to lead the Arab World, backed to some degree by the League of Arab States and by the former mufti of Jerusalem …

(All emphasis is mine)

Lars Bosteen
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    Not arguing against your A: two bolded parts actually show quite a bias on this: one side "used" a truce, the other "wasted" the temp-peace… / *but* what needs addressing is the contradiction to "The truce was designed to last 28 days and an arms embargo was declared with the intention that neither side would make any gains from the truce. Neither side respected the truce; both found ways around the restrictions placed on them." – LаngLаngС Nov 10 '21 at 13:07
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    @KRyan "the myth of the emerging State of Israel as David facing the Arab Goliath in the 1948 war" - i.e. the first sentence of the quoted text immediately below it. – Lars Bosteen Nov 10 '21 at 14:45
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    The " enjoyed better access to arms" really begs for some explanation and source, given the existing embargo and much easier access to neighbouring countries by the Arab states. – Vladimir F Героям слава Nov 10 '21 at 15:41
  • Citation is missing for third quoted paragraph. Further, that quote appears to be contradictory: how was Israel (supported by the West) able to violate the embargo if the West was supposedly honouring said embargo? – Ian Kemp Nov 10 '21 at 15:50
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    When you mention Falujah, do you mean Falujah, Iraq, or do you mean Al-Faluja near Gaza? – Ross Presser Nov 10 '21 at 16:02
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    Could you add some sort of explanation for why Western powers following the embargo but the Soviets not would net out as an advantage for Israel? – Michael W. Nov 10 '21 at 16:37
  • @MichaelW. I've added a little on this but it's really a whole different question which is (partially at least) dealt with in this Hist SE post. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:32
  • @RossPresser Yes, that needs clarifying. Thanks for pointing it out. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:32
  • @IanKemp The west's policy was to de-escalate conflict, thus the arms embargo. It was the Eastern Bloc which was the principle supplier to Israel. See the edits I've made. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:34
  • @VladimirF Edited to add more on this. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:37
  • @LаngLаngС I'm not sure that 'used' and 'wasted' necessarily indicate a bias, though 'partly didn't, partly weren't able to use as well' would have more been more appropriate. Interestingly, Shlaim has been accused of being anti-Israeli due to his views on more recent Israeli policies. Concerning the Wiki entry apparent contradiction, I'm still looking for more on this but I think it's simply a case of the Arabs getting some arms, but nearly as much the Israelis. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:44
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    @KRyan Edited to make it clearer. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 02:44
  • You just linked some contemporary rumours - and thise rumours attribute those nonexistent Yaks to both sides. Israel got some Avia S-199. But they were fighting against Arab numeric superiority. Only later did they get much more aircraft from elsewhere. – Vladimir F Героям слава Nov 11 '21 at 07:21
  • @VladimirF The sources I provided are all from academics in this field. If you have academic sources which have other / contradictory information, I would be happy to re-assess my answer and edit if justified. For the moment, though, I only have your word for it. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 08:06
  • UK parliament discussions in 1948 are no scholarly sources. They speak about some Yaks that never existed. At least not on the Israeli side. They are just rumours and nothing more. – Vladimir F Героям слава Nov 11 '21 at 08:22
  • revisionist history... – jwenting Nov 11 '21 at 09:25
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    @VladimirF You just picked on the one non-scholarly source (but it is a primary one, for better or worse) and Yaks are not the only military equipment involved here, points which your comment completely ignores. Yes, it is disputed as whether Yaks specifically were supplied but there is documented evidence of arms supplied, including planes. I'm open to considering new evidence from academic and / or primary sources and editing my answer accordingly, but so far you state 'rumours' without providing any citation. – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 09:27
  • @jwenting Can you elaborate? – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 09:37
  • @LarsBosteen the idea that Israel was better equipped, better funded, better organised, than the Arabs is revisionist. They weren't. They were under an international arms embargo where the Arabs had access to anything they wanted, they were largely unorganised militia rather than national armed forces (and those Arab forces were trained by the British and Soviets btw.). What they had was drive and determination, and they were fighting for the survival of their tribe against foes determined to complete what Hitler had started. – jwenting Nov 11 '21 at 11:58
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    and oh, there were no "Palestinians". That phrase wasn't invented yet, it came later when the Soviets created the PLO. – jwenting Nov 11 '21 at 11:59
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    @jwenting the idea that Israel was better equipped, better funded, better organised, than the Arabs is revisionist. They weren't. - if you really believe this, why not post an answer, backed up by sources? – Lars Bosteen Nov 11 '21 at 13:12
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    @LarsBosteen That doesn't really answer my question, but perhaps I've worded it poorly. Did the Soviets breaking the embargo help Israel because the USSR wanted Israel to win, or did it help Israel because the Soviets were willing to sell arms to anybody, but only Israel was organized enough to take advantage? Perhaps I'm getting a little in the weeds, but I think either answer would speak to how Israel was able to pull the victory off. – Michael W. Nov 11 '21 at 17:18
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    @jwenting, there were "Palestinians", but they were all the inhabitants of [mandate] Palestine. It was a regular non-partisan term. Golda Meir called herself a Palestinian; IPO was called Palestine Symphony Orchestra, etc. After formation of Israel, pan-arabism was more prominent than self-determination, and only later, when it became politically expedient, Palestinian Arabs miappropriated the term. – Zeus Nov 12 '21 at 01:15
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    @MichaelW. No, your comment wasn't poorly worded and, agreed, my previous edit did not do much to answer your question. I've now added more on this. Note that I've found no evidence or claim that the Soviets themselves broke the embargo, but they did allow the Czechs to do so. – Lars Bosteen Nov 12 '21 at 02:30
  • @Zeus there were people there, but the term "Palestinian" for any non-Jewish inhabitant of the region wasn't coined yet. The creation of that was a deliberate political act by the Soviets to provide an oppressed lower class to fight against 'the zionist threat'. – jwenting Nov 12 '21 at 07:43
  • commit their resources fully to the destruction of Israel this is part of the Arab foreign policy rethoric, as true as the "democracy export" of the US foreign policy rethoric. These are just empty formulas to fill in the gaps in between one election and the next one (yes, even in Iran they have elections, although to reduce the choice between program and candidates the iranians proceed in an undemocratic way, not like the US where the reduction in choice is ingrained in the manicheistic, culturally limited, system) – EarlGrey Nov 12 '21 at 13:32
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    @LarsBosteen Thank you, good clarification. – Michael W. Nov 12 '21 at 15:21
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Yes, there was. The certain knowledge of being exterminated. Nothing motivates as well as standing with your back to the wall, knowing defeat means death.

The Arabs made (many still do) it absolutely crystal clear what they would do with the Jews when they won. Hamas and Hezbollah, for example, repeatedly state they are quite happy most Jews live in Israel. Saves them the trouble of searching and rounding them up.

Very recently (2020), the Abrahamic accords brought peace between many Arab nations and Israel. In 1948 every Arab nation only had one goal that united them: to wipe Israel off the face of the earth.

added, based on the comments:

In the Arab-Israeli war, the Israeli forces were better trained, better armed and stronger. They had a unified command structure, something the Arabs lacked as well.

However, that didn't matter. America had many more advantages over the Taliban, and they still withdrew. It's the motivation that matters.

The Arab forces were fighting for land, honour and religious persecution. The Israeli forces were fighting for their very lives. If the war didn't go well for the Arabs, they could go home and try again later. Most of the Arabs had to go home anyway - victory or defeat - as they didn't live and never had lived in Israel.

Israelis had nowhere to go, except up in a puff of smoke. An experience they were intimately familiar with.

Jos
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    The other side of this, of course, was that the Arab armies were poorly organized, and probably a good fraction of the soldiers were poorly motivated. Unless you postulate that all of them were motivated by pure hatred of the Jews, why would they go to great lengths to risk their lives in combat? That seems true of all of the Arab-Israeli wars. – jamesqf Nov 10 '21 at 03:16
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    @jamesqf True enough, but the Israeli army at that time wasn't the fighting machine it became later on. It was an even more ragtag army, their strength was motivation. – Jos Nov 10 '21 at 03:18
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    -1 False narrative. Arabs were far from united in 1948, especially in single goal to wipe out Israel. In fact, there were various factions among them, and most of them paid only lip service to war . – rs.29 Nov 10 '21 at 08:01
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    @rs.29 Funny. I count 7 Arab armies. How many does one need to qualify as united? – Jos Nov 10 '21 at 08:13
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    @Jos One ;) The fact that you have 7 armies, all with their own goals, is actually opposite to unity of command and purpose. – rs.29 Nov 10 '21 at 08:14
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    @rs.29 It does give you an overwhelming majority in numbers. That usually helps a lot. – Jos Nov 10 '21 at 08:35
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    @Jos Not if you attack piecemeal, like in this case. Especially if you hope that your "allies" would bleed themselves dry, and then you will ride in and win both against "common enemy" and them. – rs.29 Nov 10 '21 at 08:46
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    The reference to the 2020 Abraham Accords seems out-of-place here, since the Arab countries involved in them (the UAE and Bahrain) were not among those that sent armies to wipe out Israel in 1948. More relevant are the 1977 Egypt–Israel peace treaty and the 1994 Israel–Jordan peace treaty. – ruakh Nov 10 '21 at 09:12
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    @rs.29: Those 7 armies all had a common GOAL: elimination of the Jews. What they didn't have were common strategy & tactics. As you say, lack of coordination, plus a strong element of letting the other guys do the bleeding. (Both between armies, and within each individual army.) Which seems common to all the Arab-Israeli wars. – jamesqf Nov 10 '21 at 13:54
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    This is an almost entirely subjective answer. The only source is to the recent Abraham Accords, described as involving "many" Arab nations whereas it's actually only UAE and Bahrain. Additionally the Abraham accords are considered fragile because UAE signed on the promise that Israel abandons their annexation plan. And the part involving Bahrain is mostly symbolic, probably to make it look like a more significant symbol than it actually is. – Erwan Nov 10 '21 at 16:46
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    @Erwan: So how do you objectively measure the effect of fighting for your lives, vs opposing armies who in the main lack any particularly strong motive? – jamesqf Nov 10 '21 at 18:02
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    @jamesqf that's not the point, the argument might be perfectly good but it needs to be sourced. – Erwan Nov 10 '21 at 18:56
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    @jamesqf I would argue that they nominally had the same goal, but in reality they had their own particular interests, more important to them then eliminating Israel . This pattern continued to present day, where all Arab states pay lip service to Palestinian goal but in reality many of them clandestinely work with Israel. – rs.29 Nov 11 '21 at 09:27
  • @Erwan: So we're supposed to blindly parrot what someone else has written, instead of thinking for ourselves? No thanks. – jamesqf Nov 11 '21 at 16:12
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    @jamesqf nobody asks anybody to parrot anything, but it's a common requirement on SE to back claims (especially interpretative ones) with evidence. You could ask on meta about this. In this case there is no evidence that the fact that Israelis fought for their survival played an important role in the outcome of the war. There are historical examples where a population fought for their survival and lost, so I doubt that it fully explains the victory of Israel. – Erwan Nov 11 '21 at 16:57
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    Indeed, this is the only necessary explanation. The Arabs all knew that if they were unsuccessful, they could go home and try again later. The Israelis knew that if they were unsuccessful, they would be killed, and so would their wives and children, after being raped. The Arabs did not have the overwhelming military advantage that would have been needed to overcome this huge assymetry in motivation. Plus, the Arabs were (understandably) overconfident, which amplified the Israelis' advantage in motivation. – Jeffiekins Nov 11 '21 at 21:50
  • @Erwan: That is perfectly reasonable for things that can be supported by data, but not for things like this, because it simply can't be supported, or refuted, by evidence. Sure, I could do a search and find people who've said the same or similar things, but it's just their opinion, which is no better or worse than mine. – jamesqf Nov 12 '21 at 03:25
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Summarizing shortly:

1). Arab countries had sent a small part of their armies. At the same time, Isralis performed a total mobilization, and at the end of the war Israeli forces were BIGGER. It is a matter of quantity.

2). Israelis had lots of personnel with combat experience of WWII. Arab armies did not have any combat experience at all. It's a matter of quality. In fact the only one Arab army that was strong enough to be a real problem for Israelis, it was Arab legion of Jordan ("Transjordan" that days), trained by British.

But it was a

3). Secret deal of Israelis and British with Jordan kingdom, that they will occupy territory, that is West Bank now, and will stop in these borders without attempts to destroy Jewish state. It is a matter of lack of pan-Arab solidarity. Jordan and Egypt did not help to create Palestinian state at all. Instead of it, they annexed it's territories (West bank by Jordan and Gaza Strip by Egypt).

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To understand the Israeli victory in the war, one should consider the chronology of the war:

The war could be divided in two main parts:

  • First, the new Israeli and Palestinian states confronted in local but severe skirmishes, each of them trying to coordinate its local units, sometimes militia-based, to perform better. The overall result of this phase of the conflict is that the Israeli state, sometimes with violent actions, was able to "tame" some Jewish movements that had played a role under British colonial movements such as Irgun. During this phase, Arab states only performed marginal attacks on the borders, blockading kibbutz. They were themselves in an issue of organisation. During this phase, everyone is trying to reinforce his army with weapons, foreign mercenaries or volunteers... At this game, Israel was somewhat better because of large immigration of european Jewish that had fought WW2.
  • Second part: The Arab states performed great-scale offensives. All of them are ultimately defeated, but Israeli forces are in a difficult situation during this time. The best Arab armed forces of that period is the Glubb Pacha Jordanian legion, then Egyptian forces.

During the conflict, if the land fight is very close, the fight on the sea is very much in favour of Israel, that used all means (such as fast attack craft similar to the Italian MTM) to counter British-legacy boats under Egyptian crews. In the air, buying Czech Avia S 199 and American Mustang out of WW2 help Israeli to counter the Arab aviation, mainly based on British types. As on the land, Israel had the advantage of european Jewish pilots that had served in WW2 and immigrated in 1948 to fight for Israel.

Conclusion:

The first phase was the best chance for the Arab to win, because they had greater means. But the novelty of regal prerogatives for those states caused them to be slow in mounting an powerful attack of Israel. This let the chance for Israel to regulate its own political problems and to create an army out of unorganized material and human material. The second phase saw a fight where Arab armies had the classic difficulties of a state fighting for foreign conquests with few ideological background attacking a state with high morale: their soldiers were not willing to fight and were commanded by contemptuous officers, while Israeli soldiers were like "fight for life".

totalMongot
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