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This question has been confusing me for a while. Was Alexander the Great Greek or Macedonian?

He was born in Pella, Macedonia, but is he considered Greek? Did nationality and ethnicity mean different things at the time of the Greeks as they do now or were they regarded the same?

This link says Macedonians were ethnic Greek, while this one contradicts the former.

yannis
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The Byzantine
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    Maybe the question should be re-expressed as were ancient Macedonians Hellens? I'd say that in that time and place, there was no concept of nationality as understood today, rather 2-level affiliation: first of the local state or tribe, and the second - of Hellen cultural circle. It makes no sense to even talk about Greek nationality in 4 century BC. There was no such thing as Greek nation at the time. Short answer would be that Alexander was an ethnic Macedonian, which Macedonians belonged to Hellen cultural circle (though being somehow of its edge). – soliloquyy Jan 14 '13 at 00:23
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    Note that this is a politically loaded question. Many Greeks today are upset (for reasons that aren't totally clear to me) about the existence, independence, and/or name of the Republic of Macedonia (part of the former Yugoslavia). –  Aug 30 '14 at 17:41
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    Basically, being "Macedonian" today (slavic) means a completely different thing than being "Macedinian" back then, and this upsets the greeks because they feel like the slavs are stealing their history. (Macedonian back then was a remote dialect of Greek, Macedonian today is a remote dialect of Bulgarian) – Bregalad Apr 19 '15 at 08:51

5 Answers5

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Prior to Phillip's time, the ancient Greek world was fragmented in (often warring) city states and kingdoms, and citizenship was considered far more important than nationality or ancestry. Pericles' reforms (451 BC) exemplify the distinction: From that point on Athenian citizens would lose their citizenship if they married non Athenians, regardless of their Hellenic ancestry. Similar laws, more or less, existed in Sparta, Athen's cultural and political counterweight, and all around the Ancient Greek world. In a comparably similar manner, both Philip and Alexander favoured the citizens and soldiers of Macedon over the rest of the Greeks.

The first time the Greeks became a single political entity, with the notable exception of Sparta, was the League of Corinth (337 BC). Thus the concept of Greek nationality was just one year old when Philip was assassinated and the 20 year old Alexander assumed power. However his ancestry had been considered Hellenic since the times of Hesiod and Homer and his dynasty had been recognized as ethnically Greek since at least the Graeco-Persian wars.

Simply put, ancient Macedonians were one of the many Hellenic tribes. What bonded them with the other Hellenic tribes - the Minoans, Achaeans, Ionians, Mycenaeans, Dorians, and Epirots to name a few - was a cultural and historical bond, not a national or ethnic one. The Macedonias spoke in a Greek dialect, worshipped the gods of Olympus and followed all major traditions of their fellow Hellenes. If we approach the question strictly from a cultural perspective, the answer is obvious: ancient Macedonians were decisively Greek.

There's an abudance of archaeological evidence for the above in Dion, the Macedonian sacred city. Dion was build in the feet of mount Olympus and early in the 5th century it became the cultural and religious centre of the kingdom of Macedon. Archelaus I of Macedon created a sanctuary in honour of Zeus and re-organized and brought to prominence a nine days festival (the Olympia) in honour of Zeus and the Muses. Every major city state of the era build their own sanctuaries in Dion - some still visible - and participated in the festivities.

The Greeks weren't particularly xenophobic, but they never participated in barbarians' religious festivities or allowed barbarians to participate in their own. It only takes a short walk through the ruins of Dion to quickly realize the Macedonians were widely accepted as Greeks by the other Hellenic tribes.

Hesiod on the origin of Macedonians

Hesiod (750 - 650 BC) gives us a beautiful story of the origins of Macedonians, in Catalogue of Women. According to his mythology, Macedon was Hellen's nephew. Hellen was the mythological progenitor of the Hellenes and where the words Hellas and Hellene come from. This mythological relationship binds Macedonians with the other major tribes of the era:

The Hesiodic mythology is our basis for which tribes of the era can be considered Hellenic. If we doubt the Macedonians' belief that they were Hellen's descendants, I don't see why we don't doubt the similar beliefs of the rest of the Hellenic tribes.

Herodotus on the origin of Macedonians

The royal house of Macedon claimed an Argive1 descent, tracing their origin to the legendary Hercules2. Herodotus presents the claim in his Histories, by describing an event that took place prior to the naval battle of Salamis (492 BC). Alexander I of Macedon, while visiting the Greek camp as an envoy for the Persian general Mardonius2, proclaims his Greek ancestry:

[Hdt. 9.45.1] Hearing that, the generals straightway went with the men to the outposts. When they had come, Alexander said to them: “Men of Athens, I give you this message in trust as a secret which you must reveal to no one but Pausanias, or else you will be responsible for my undoing. In truth I would not tell it to you if I did not care so much for all Hellas;
[Hdt. 9.45.2] I myself am by ancient descent a Greek, and I would not willingly see Hellas change her freedom for slavery. I tell you, then, that Mardonius and his army cannot get omens to his liking from the sacrifices. Otherwise you would have fought long before this. Now, however, it is his purpose to pay no heed to the sacrifices, and to attack at the first glimmer of dawn, for he fears, as I surmise, that your numbers will become still greater. Therefore, I urge you to prepare, and if (as may be) Mardonius should delay and not attack, wait patiently where you are; for he has but a few days' provisions left.
[Hdt. 9.45.3] If, however, this war ends as you wish, then must you take thought how to save me too from slavery, who have done so desperate a deed as this for the sake of Hellas in my desire to declare to you Mardonius' intent so that the barbarians may not attack you suddenly before you yet expect them. I who speak am Alexander the Macedonian.” With that he rode away back to the camp and his own station there.

The Greco-Persian Wars and Herodotus' account are significant because this is the first time in Greek history the Greeks united, even if only to face a common enemy. The Argeads claim of Greek ancestry was successfully put to the test 20 years after the battle of Salamis, when Alexander attempted to participate in the Olympic Games (500 or 504 BC):

[Hdt. 5.22.1] Now that these descendants of Perdiccas are Greeks, as they themselves say, I myself chance to know and will prove it in the later part of my history. Furthermore, the Hellenodicae who manage the contest at Olympia determined that it is so,
[Hdt. 5.22.2] for when Alexander chose to contend and entered the lists for that purpose, the Greeks who were to run against him wanted to bar him from the race, saying that the contest should be for Greeks and not for foreigners. Alexander, however, proving himself to be an Argive, was judged to be a Greek. He accordingly competed in the furlong race and tied step for first place. This, then, is approximately what happened.

The Greeks contesting Alexander's ancestry was most probably politically motivated. Macedonia was a Persian puppet state during the Graeco-Persian wars, and it's not unreasonable that the Greek world was uncomfortable with a Macedonian competing in the Games. Still, the Hellenodicae ruled in favour of Alexander and it should be noted that Archelaus I had also competed in the Games prior to the Persian invasion.

Epilogue

In recent years, starting from the late 19th century and onwards, there have been various efforts to question Alexander's ancestry and essentially rewrite history. Most of these efforts are related to the often bitter Macedonia naming dispute. This complicated political issue has produced tons of documentation, from both sides, and the politically charged rhetoric is where the historically false dichotomy of Greek or Macedonian comes from.

1 From the Peloponnesian city of Argos.
2 The inscription "ΗΡΑΚΛΗΙ ΠΑΤΡΩΙΩΙ" (Father/Ancestor Heracles) was found in one of the rooms of the palace in Aegae, the Macedonian capital.
3 Mardonius had quickly subjugated the kingdom on Macedon, during the Persian invasion of Greece.

Semaphore
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yannis
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  • This is a very good answer and I've learnt a lot from it. However, I kinda lost you in the final paragraph. Does Aristotle really count as a Macedonian? He was born in Stagira which apparently wasn't part of the kingdom of Macedon but related to it by all kinds of ties. Wikipedia says that "Aristotle was trained and educated as a member of the aristocracy." but the claim is suspicious because no citation is given. Can you expound more on this issue? – Felix Goldberg Jan 14 '13 at 11:58
  • @FelixGoldberg It depends on your definition of Macedonian. Stagira was at the outskirts of the kingdom of Macedon prior to Philip, and it (officially) became part of the kingdom when Philip razed (and later rebuild) the city. Aristotle's father was a royal physician, and his foster parents were probably Macedonian nobles (but I need to a bit of research here). More notably, Aristotle was ousted from Athens after Alexander's death, for being "pro Macedonian". In any case, you're right, that last paragraph is a bit rushed but I'll have to leave now, I'll revisit it later today – yannis Jan 14 '13 at 12:21
  • @FelixGoldberg Paragraph removed until I get a chance to revisit it and support it with sources. – yannis Jan 14 '13 at 12:22
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    @YannisRizos I'm from Republic of Macedonia, and I have to say that this was a beautifully written and researched article. It's sad that 2500 years later our countries are still plagued by politically charged false dichotomies . – SWeko Jan 14 '13 at 16:35
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    @YannisRizos: Can you please address the issue of language? It does seem that Macedonian was a separate language. I'm sure you have interesting sources about that as well. – Felix Goldberg Jan 14 '13 at 23:12
  • @FelixGoldberg http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Macedonian_language – yannis Jan 14 '13 at 23:20
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    @FelixGoldberg It's possible that any supposed greater distance between Macedonian and other Greek dialects (such as Doric or Ionian) exist primarily because of geographic distance. Is Macedonian a separate language because of that? Perhaps. Does it have a common root with the other Greek dialects? Certainly. Was Macedonia considered a Hellenic nation by Hellenes and Macedonians of the time? Yes. Did Macedonia share a common culture? Definitely, and they had for so long as to be difficult to untangle from Greek culture. For all intents and purposes, they should be considered fully Hellene. – called2voyage Aug 27 '13 at 12:56
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    Maybe it is important to say that Alexander was from his fathers side an Argaeades and from his mother's side an Aeacides. Both of them are known Greek families (it obvious even from the names), regardless the opinion one has about the ethnic background of the inhabitants of the Kingdom. So, the answer is definetely "YES he was Greek", without needing to enter that politically loaded field. – Midas Jun 30 '14 at 11:34
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    -1. Macedonian language is not a Greek dialect (although a related, Indo-European language), and Macedonians are not Hellenes by origin. Even though by the time of Alexander they already spoke common Greek, and Macedonian language went out of use. – Anixx Aug 30 '14 at 16:27
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    @called2voyage Macedonian is not a Hellenic language. It is as far from Greek as, say, Latin. At the time all Indo-European languages resembled each other much closely than they do today. – Anixx Aug 30 '14 at 16:33
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    Feel free to post your own answer @Anix, I'd be very interested in reading it, especially if you take the time to back those claims. – yannis Aug 30 '14 at 17:18
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    @Anixx The argument about all Indo-European languages resembling each other at that time is wrong. Compare Greek with Carian, Lydian and Iron age Luwian. Those people were even in symbiosis with the Greeks, yet they are light years in distance compared to a hypothetical Macedonian language. – Midas Jul 15 '16 at 11:32
  • One thing is not clear how Hellenic culture can be related to Greekness. eg. after the Roman takeover, the area north of Pindus up to above Albania was dominated by 'Early' Vlachs (Armãn, Latin language), & never influenced to convert their language to Geek/Slavic/Albanian. http://www.imninalu.net/myths-Vlach.htm ; https://www.eupedia.com/forum/threads/26718-Vlach-haplogroups-deep-ancestry – taki Dec 20 '17 at 10:15
  • I think Greekness is based too much on language 'evidence.'. Many languages were passed orally, without clear evidence (eg Macedonian Vlach). The Byzantine empire converted to Hellenic from Latin for political reasons, but most of the rulers were not Greek. In future, some might classify us all as English based on the language we use to communicate. Also, too much based on Mythology. – taki Jan 14 '18 at 14:45
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As one more piece of evidence, Philip Freeman in his biography Alexander the Great judges thus:

The question of Macedonian language and ethnic identity is one of the most contentious topics in classical scholarship, the debate often driven more by modern Balkan nationalism than the small amount of ancient evidence we actually possess. I incline to the argument that Macedonian was a distant dialect of Greek rather than a separate language. In any case, the practical result in the age of Alexander was that the Macedonians considered themselves and were considered by others as non-Greeks ...

Though their kings bore ancient Greek names, the Macedonian people called Philip Bilippos instead of the normal Greek Philippos. This only served to make them an object of further scorn to their pretentious critics in the Athenian assembly. Language as well as politics, culture, and so much else, reinforced the opinion of the Greeks that the Macedonians were are separate people, barbarians from beyond Olympus, no matter how hard their kings may try to behave like Greeks. As to most Macedonians, this was just fine. They saw the Greeks as feeble, effeminate, self-important snobs who had long since squandered whatever manliness and courage they had possessed when they had driven back the Persian invaders more than a century earlier. The Macedonian nobility might study Greek philosophy and recite their poetry of Homer, but the common Macedonian soldier was proud not to be Greek.

The quote's greatest value (relative to the other answers) is perhaps in reminding us that this question is still linked to political circumstances of today. (As to its limitations, I wonder how Freeman can possibly anchor the claimed sentiments of most Macedonians in primary historic sources.)

Drux
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    @YannisRizos And I think that Freeman mapped that current North/South situation to the ancient times, which might, but might not be correct. – SWeko Jan 15 '13 at 08:33
  • The fact that this answer has been downvoted (for no good reason IMHO) shows to me that the question is still a highly sensitive one :) BTW, I recommend Freeman's book: in terms of its weaknesses, it mainly seems to suffer from the limitations of a single-volume biography of such a big topic/figure ... – Drux Jan 15 '13 at 08:35
  • @YannisRizos (re today) that's interesting. Normally people in the North(s) tend to look down on people in the South(s) with this kind of (perhaps silly) prejudices: think of USA/Mexico or parts of the EU, for example ... – Drux Jan 15 '13 at 08:36
  • "One more thing": StackExchange sometimes (but not here/now) displays a "Know somebody who may know the answer ..." field where one can provide an e-mail address to forward a link to the question. If it were available, I would contact Prof. Freeman that way (see e-mail address on linked web site). Does anybody "see" that field or know how the mechanism can be accessed/activated (for I don't want to use my private e-mail address)? If not, I may write this up as a question on meta ... – Drux Jan 15 '13 at 08:57
  • @Drux "Know somebody who may know the answer ..." goes through your email client, not via some anonymized SE email. And it does show only on new questions. As soon as at least one answer is added by anyone, it disappears. – kubanczyk Jan 17 '13 at 20:46
  • @kubanczyk thanks for this clarification. Just thinking: a generalized "know somebody ..." could be a good way to extend the community and reach out to experts in the field ... – Drux Jan 17 '13 at 23:14
  • I wonder on what some of his comments are based on. For example "but the common Macedonian soldier was proud not to be Greek" and "the Macedonians considered themselves". Did he asked them? As far as I know from literary sources the sentence "Macedonians and the rest of the Greeks" is very common. Why would many of them want to compete in the Olympics and why would they be accepted if the above sentences were true? – Midas Sep 02 '14 at 07:32
  • I agree with the quoted position, as language can be adapted to practical/political purpose, eg. Bulgars speak Slavic language, French/Spanish speak Romance... Hellenic was popular at the time & even the Romans converted to Hellenism in the Eastern Roman Empire. – taki Dec 20 '17 at 10:21