Frankly I don't deserve to get any credit for this answer. That's the reason I was commenting on the question. What you are asking as a question is too trivial.
Part 1
$$a_1=1-\frac{1}{2j}= 1-\frac{j}{2j^2}$$
We know that $j^2=-1$ from complex number arithmetic. So $a_1$ simplifies to $1+\frac{j}{2}$
Part 3
$$4je^{j3\frac{2\pi}{8}t} - 4je^{-j3\frac{2\pi}{8}t}$$
Multiply and divide the above expression by $2j$.
we get $$4j\left(e^{j3\frac{2\pi}{8}} - e^{-j3\frac{2\pi}{8})t}\right) \frac{2j}{2j}$$
It simplifies to $$8j^2\left(e^{j3\frac{2\pi}{8}t} - e^{-j3\frac{2\pi}{8}t}\right)\frac{1}{2j}$$
which is equal to $$8j^2 \sin\left(\frac{6\pi}{8}t\right) = -8 \sin \left(\frac{6\pi}{8}t\right)$$
because from exponential form of definition of $\sin(x)$
$$\sin(x) = \dfrac{e^{jx} + e^{-jx}}{2j}$$