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When speaking without the intent of communicating, but just to ones self or reading to ones self. Does this use a different area of the brain as opposed to speaking to a person, or even a device such as Alexa?

Josh
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    Welcome to psych.SE. I actually think this question is a duplicate of https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/15327/7001 - the answer is: "no - it uses the same part of the brain." Do you agree that this question is already answered there? – Arnon Weinberg Dec 01 '19 at 22:08

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