Humans have been drinking alcohol for its intoxicating effects. For intoxication a small amount of alcohol is sufficient, but because the liver is very efficient in filtering it, we need more of it to get intoxicated.
This seems to be the main problem. This is what causes us to drink a lot to get high. This is also what causes liver damage over a long period of time and in short term this is what causes hangover.
This metabolic pathway changes if we co-administer lesser amount of alcohol with alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) inhibitor like 4-methylpyrazole (4-MP) which slows down breaking of alcohol and one could achieve same amounts of intoxication with comparatively very less alcohol.
Apparently Wikipedia agrees with this, but warns that if the alcohol dose is not reduced then it may cause severe intoxication and overdose.
Concurrent use with ethanol is contraindicated because fomepizole is known to prolong the half-life of ethanol via inhibiting its metabolism. Extending the half-life of ethanol may increase and extend the intoxicating effects of ethanol, allowing for greater (potentially dangerous) levels of intoxication at lower doses. Fomepizole slows the production of acetaldehyde by inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase, which in turn allows more time to further convert acetaldehyde into acetic acid by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. The result is a patient with a prolonged and deeper level of intoxication for any given dose of ethanol, and reduced "hangover" symptoms (since these adverse symptoms are largely mediated by acetaldehyde build up
But also agrees that if the dose is adjusted and lowered it can have a positive effect.
If alcoholics instead very carefully reduce their doses to reflect the now slower metabolism, they may get the "rewarding" stimulus of intoxication at lower doses with less adverse "hangover" effects - leading potentially to increased psychological dependency. However, these lower doses may therefore produce less chronic toxicity and provide a harm minimization approach to chronic alcoholism
Now assuming that alcoholics are placed under strict supervision and two groups are given with just alcohol and alcohol with 4-MP, to achieve comparable intoxication.
So if group A receives, say 15ml of pure alcohol containing beverage, then B receives 3ml or so, of alcohol along with 4-MP.
- Can this help in the prevention of alcohol related liver complications?
- Is 4-MP, despite its short-term safety, is safe for long term use?
Is there any data is medical literature on this?
Edit: Regarding the concerns about toxicity.
According to Dr. Dasgupta's research, the perfect BAC in accordance with these moderate drinking guidelines is 0.04 - 0.05%. When your BAC is in this range, you feel good, you gain all the health benefits from the alcohol, and you should not appear overly impaired
So even if we assume none of the alcohol breaks down, average human has around 5000 ml of blood. Reverse calculating it 2.5g of alcohol will cause a BAC of 0.05% which is ideal and non-toxic. So if we give someone 3ml of ethanol with 4-MP, then it is, at least theoretically, it's completely safe.
Here, user14203 said "Goodbye" rather than explain some Comments.
Questionable Comments, unexplained, can reasonably be termed "fishy."
The plural of ""fish" is "fish" but the plural of "fishy" would be "fishies…"
Is that enough to explain "so long and thanks for all the fishies"?
– Robbie Goodwin Jan 15 '22 at 01:47Do you truly not see how that does boil down to "For intoxication a small amount of alcohol is sufficient, but we need more to get intoxicated"?
Is English not your language of choice?
– Robbie Goodwin Jan 20 '22 at 21:29Taking the time to write or the space to read the full version, "For intoxication a small amount of alcohol is sufficient, but because the liver is very efficient in filtering it, we need more of it to get intoxicated" doesn't change the meaning in English. Would you rather use another language?
Dropping the middle part "because the liver is very efficient in filtering it" makes no difference in English.
The point remains, what difference but grammar is there between "intoxication" and "getting intoxicated" in any language?
– Robbie Goodwin Jan 30 '22 at 22:26One: There is a difference between "For intoxication a small amount of alcohol is sufficient…" and "… we need more of it to get intoxicated". Sorry; not without re-phrasing, there isn't.
Two: Dropping the middle part "because the liver is very efficient in filtering it" makes a difference in English. Sorry; it doesn't.
Edit the Post to say what you meant but please, stop denying the problem is that you slipped up in the first place.
– Robbie Goodwin Jan 31 '22 at 23:13Why not now Post a useful a Comment?
– Robbie Goodwin Feb 05 '22 at 22:42Either way, how could I be positive - more, less or how?
If your Edit privileges come into this, why not just Post your revised views here?
If that's a simple Post, Commenting on something earlier, fine.
If you'd like to Edit the original, I'll try to accommodate you…
– Robbie Goodwin Feb 06 '22 at 00:00