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If I am not mistaken, classical liberalism, among which economic liberalism (laissez-faire), was at the beginning supported by the left (Benjamin Constant 1767-1830, Alexis de Tocqueville 1805-1859, Léon Say 1826-1896, Jules Simon 1814-1896, Yves Guyot 1843-1928), at least in France, but that's from where the left-right opposition come anyway. The right on the other hand, was for the maintenance of the old-regime order, that is, the King and the Church.

But now, at least roughly, being in the U.S, in England, or in France, economic liberalism (laissez-faire) supporting has moved to the right (which is still nonetheless conservative, with a defense of traditional values, especially religious ones (Catholicism in France and Protestantism in the U.S.)). I find it even more confounding in the case of the historically catholic France, given that catholicism has a tendency to disdain money and commerce.

I wonder why is that.

Starckman
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    classical liberalism, among which free-market capitalism, was at the beginning supported by left. I think that is very much something you need to substantiate. What period/events do you have in mind to support this claim? and how did "left and right" figure at the "birth" of capitalism, ie. Adam Smith, the East India Company, 17th C and 18C. When the "left" and "right" term only came into being as part of the French revolution, later, late 18th C. – Italian Philosophers 4 Monica Jul 09 '23 at 01:42
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    It should be noted that the earliest advocates for capitalism were not in favor of free markets as such. Smith and Mill, for example, advocated for an expansive welfare state. The free market fundamentalism that I think you're talking about came later and has almost always been associated with the politics of the right. – Charles Hudgins Jul 09 '23 at 04:37
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    The UK didn't have universal male suffrage till 1918, while France got it in 1848. So if you equate the left with working-class males, what they believed didn't matter in the days of Adam Smith. – Stuart F Jul 14 '23 at 15:53
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    @StuartF The living standards improvement and the ideas of equality brought by Adam Smith & co created the conditions for having all the positive societal changes of the next centuries. – Starckman Jul 15 '23 at 02:58
  • "free-market capitalism" "originally belonged" "to the left"---What is the basis of this claim? This claim is as absurd as claiming that abortion rights or gun control "originally belonged to the left" (way back in the 1700s France). – user103496 Oct 12 '23 at 05:33
  • @user103496 "Influenced by classical liberalism and the concepts of democracy, human rights and Montesquieu's separation of powers, the Girondins initially supported the constitutional monarchy, but after the Flight to Varennes in which Louis XVI tried to flee Paris in order to start a counter-revolution the Girondins became mostly republicans, with a royalist minority." – Starckman Oct 12 '23 at 06:19
  • "In its early times of government, the Gironde supported a free market - opposing price controls on goods (e.g., a 1793 maximum on grain prices),[33] supported by a constitutional right to public assistance for the poor and public education." + "They sat to the left of the centrist[35] Feuillants, but later sat on the right of the National Assembly after the neutralization of the Feuillants." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Girondins#Ideology
  • – Starckman Oct 12 '23 at 06:19
  • public assistance for the poor and public education These aren't exactly free-market policies. later sat on the right So, you may instead want to ask why one particular small and short-lived political group called the Girondins may have supported one particular free-market policy (but not others) and why they were originally on the left then switched to the right. (The existence of the Girondins does not support your false claim that free-market capitalism "originally belonged to the left".) – user103496 Oct 12 '23 at 06:24
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    I am not aware of free-market capitalism being supported by the left originally. The political left and right (termed as such) originally came from the French Revolution where the Jacobins were not particularly free-market, more socialist. The Girondins would be considered to be liberal (bourgeois) as distinguished from left (working-class) back when 'liberalism' had no great association with 'leftism' beyond sitting on the physical left. – user84614 Oct 17 '23 at 02:19
  • @user84614 Thx for your comment. "'liberalism' had no great association with 'leftism' beyond sitting on the physical left", since we contend that the left/right dichotomy comes precisely from the physical placement of the Assembly representatives during the French revolution, why wouldn't it be significative that the liberal (bourgeois) ones seated on the left side (and therefore should be considered left-winning)? – Starckman Oct 17 '23 at 04:40
  • @Starckman Yeah that's just the etymology – user84614 Oct 17 '23 at 09:05